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Recruitment of Software Trainees
INFORMATION HANDOUT
INTRODUCTION
This booklet contains details pertaining to various aspects of the examination you are going to undertake and important instructions about the related matters. A computerised machine will do the assessment of the answersheet; hence you should carefully read instructions regarding handling of the answersheet and the method of marking answers. You are advised to study this booklet carefully as it will help you in preparing yourself for the examination.
Before appearing for the written examination, you should strictly ensure yourself that you fulfill the eligibility criteria stipulated by the Organisation in all respects. The Organisation will reject at any stage of selection, any candidate who does not satisfy the eligibility criteria.
Please note that this is a competitive examination; mere passing is not adequate. You have to obtain a high rank in the order of merit to be considered for interview. You should therefore put in your best effort in the examination.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Particulars to be noted: Please note carefully your Roll Number, Date, Time and Venue for the examination given in the call-letter.
2. Punctuality in Attendance: Candidates should be present at the examination hall at the time given in the Call-letter. Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the Examination Hall.
3. Call-letter to be signed and surrendered: The call letter should be brought when you arrive at the venue for the examination alongwith your recent passport size photograph duly pasted on it. You will be required to sign in the examination hall on your call letter in the space provided for the candidate,s signature in the presence of the invigilator. (Do not sign in this space on the call letter unless the invigilator instructs you to do so.) The call letter should be surrendered to the invigilator at the examination venue.
4. Specimen answersheet and how to fill bio-data information on it: You will get an answersheet. The last sheet of this booklet is a sample of Answersheet. Fill in your Bio-data information on this answersheet for YOUR practice and BRING IT with you to the examination hall.
How to fill in the bio-data information on the answersheet is explained and shown hereafter on a sample of Answersheet. You will get answersheets in the examination hall on which you will have to copy your bio-data Information already filled-in by you.
5. Compliance with instructions: You should scrupulously follow the instructions given by test administrators and the invigilators at the examination venue at all stages of the examination for which you have been called. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and may also be asked to leave the examination hall.
6. Use of Books, Notes & Calculators: No calculator (separate or with watch), books, slide rulers, note books or written notes will be allowed inside the examination hall.
7. Copying or receiving/giving assistance not allowed: Any candidate who is found either copying or receiving or giving assistance during the examination will not be considered for assessment. The Organisation may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
8. Use of HB Pencil and Ball Pen: You should bring with you two commonly available HB Pencils, a Pencil Sharpener, an Eraser and a Ball Point Pen. Two pencils are advised to avoid mending a pencil during the examination as you may lose time. Using HB Pencil only also should mark all the answers on Side 2.
9. Handling Answersheet: Please handle your answersheet carefully. Keep it dust free. If it is mutilated, torn, folded, wrinkled, rolled or dusty, it may not be valued. Similarly, if you do not write your Roll Number and Test Form No. in Box Nos.14 and 17 respectively, your answersheet will NOT be assessed. Answersheets and question papers will be supplied by the Organisation. After the test is over, you should hand over the same to the invigilator before leaving the room. No candidate will be permitted to take exercise material outside the examination venue.
10. One Single Answer sheet: For all the objective tests there will be a single answer sheet.
11. Write Roll No. On the Test Booklet: You should write your Roll No. in the space provided on the cover page.
HOW TO SHOW YOUR ANSWERS:
Each question is followed by answers, which are numbered 1,2,3,4 and 5. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB Pencil, blacken the oval bearing the correct answer against the serial number of the question. (Refer to Side 2 of the Specimen Answersheet). Please note that the oval should be dark enough and should be filled in completely. For example, if the answer to Question Number 2, is answer number 5, it is shown as follows:
Q.2. 1 2 3 4 5
HOW TO CHANGE YOUR ANSWER:
If you wish to change your answer, ERASE COMPLETELY the already darkened oval by using good quality eraser and then blacken the new oval bearing your revised answer number. While changing the answer, erasing the earlier answer completely is extremely essential. If it is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased oval as shown below and the question will be read as having two answers and will be ignored for giving any credit.
Q.2. 1 2 3 4 5
(Smudge left in Oval No.3 due to bad eraser, and the fresh answer in Oval No.4 will be read as two answers 3 and 4 and therefore no credit will be given even if the answer No.4 happens to be the correct answer).
How to fill up Bio-data Information
Important:
1. The information is to be filled in by you in box 1-11, 13, 14,15 & 17 on Side 1, and in box 29 on Side 2 of the answervsheet.
2. You have to fill in information in boxes 1-11 by using ballpoint pen.
3. Information in boxes 13, 14, 15 and 17 on Side 1 and 29 on Side 2 are to be filled in by using HB pencil only.
4. Boxes, which have been crossed out in the specimen answersheet, are to be left blank. Do not write anything there nor darken the ovals in these boxes. Now please refer to Side 1 and 2 of the Specimen Answersheet while reading the following description:
Side 1
Full Name of the Candidate (Box No.1): You have to write in capitals your full name in English as given in the call-letter in the space provided using ballpoint pen.
Other information (Box Nos.2 to 7): You will find that the information asked for in the boxes from 2 to 7 can be filled in easily. Fill in the information by using ballpoint pen.
Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in boxes 8-10): Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in Boxes 8-10) are printed on the test booklet. You have to copy this number using ballpoint pen from the test booklet you will receive at the time of examination.
Signature of Candidates & Invigilator (Box No.11 & 12): Here both have to put his/her signatures.
Candidate,s Name (Box No.13): There is a row of 10 boxes for writing the name. Just below each box you will find a column of 26 ovals each containing a letter of the alphabet. The top oval in each contains a letter ,A, whereas the last oval bears ,Z,. See how the candidate has written her name in capitals by entering one letter in each box using HB pencil, and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. Please note that the candidate has left one box and respective column of ovals blank between two parts of her name. If your name contains more letters write only the first letters, which you can accommodate in the Boxes provided.
Candidate,s Roll Number (Box No.14): You will be assigned 8-digit roll number by the organization. There is a row of 8 boxes provided to write the roll number. Just below each box there are 10 ovals numbered from 1 to 9 and 0. See how the candidate has written her roll number in the boxes, entering one digit in each box by using HB pencil and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. You have to write your roll number on the test booklet also in the space provided for it.
Post Code (Box No.15): Please enter and darken your Educational Category Code in this Box. The Educational Category Codes are given below:
Category Code
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
E 5
Also write your Educational Category in Box No.6 with Ballpoint pen on the answersheet.
Test Form No. (Box No.17): You will have to write the test form number (3 digits) in Box No.17. Write each of the digits in the boxes provided and blacken the appropriate ovals by HB pencil.
Side 2:
Roll Number (Box No.29): Write your Roll Number by HB pencil in this box at the left hand bottom corner of Side 2 of the answersheet.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION
The written examination will comprise following objective type tests. The details of these tests are given below.
SR.NO.
NAME OF TEST
NO.OF QS.
MAX.MARKS
TIME
1.
Test of English Language
50
50
Composite time of 90 minutes for all the tests together
2.
Test of Quantitative Aptitude
50
50
3.
Test of Reasoning
50
50
All the tests will be Objective type with five alternative choices out of which one will be the correct answer. All these three tests would be in a composite test booklet. There will be a separate answersheet for indicating your answers. All these 150 questions would be printed serially from Q.No.1 to Q.No.150. You may attempt the questions in any order you like in a given time for the set of questions. However, in your own interest you are advised not to spend too much time on any one test. To qualify in the written examination, it is necessary to pass in each one of the objective tests separately. The qualifying criteria will be decided by the Organisation.
All the objective tests will be printed in English only.
Please note that the types of questions for all the tests are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual examination you will find questions of higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.
Some sample questions are given below:
Test I : Test of English Language
Q.1-2.Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q1. Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or
(1) (2)
communal problems / in varying degrees. No error
(3) (4) (5)
Q2. The regaining of freedom / as we all know /
(1) (2)
has given rise for / many dormant issues and conflicts in our
(3) (4)
society No error
(5)
Q.3-4. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would
complete the sentence correctly and meaningfully.
Q.3. Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind
of ________ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger
(5) resistance
Q.4. He wants me to look _______ his garden during his absence.
(1) at (2) over (3) after (4) into (5) for
Test II : Test of Quantitative Aptitude
Q.5. If 3 workers can collect 48 kgs cotton in 4 days, how much kgs cotton can 9 workers collect in 2 days ?
(1) 216 (2) 32 (3) 108 (4) 72 (5) None of these
Q.6. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The xpenditure on transport was Rs.480. He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs.60. What should be the selling price of each ream if he wants a profit of 20% ?
(1) Rs.126 (2) Rs.115.50 (3) Rs.105 (4) Rs.120 (5) None of these
Q.7. The interest on a certain deposit at 9% per annum is Rs.405 in one year. How much will be the additional interest in one year on the same deposit at 10% per annum ?
(1) Rs.40.50 (2) Rs.450 (3) Rs.855 (4) Rs.45
(5) None of these
Q.8. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fifth of its length. If the area of the hall is 135 sq.m. what is the difference between the length and breadth of the hall in metres ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 15 (5) None of these
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.9-11. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that follow :
Percentage of Employees giving Different Ranks
Attribute I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Socialibility 5 14 23 35 10 13
Q.9. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank?
(1) Perseverance(2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the highest percentage. So your answer is “Seniority”, which is answer No.2.
Q.10. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for intelligence. You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700 is 70. So your answer should be 4.
Q.11. Which attribute is considered the least important for Promotion?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence(3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency(5) Sociability
Referring to the percentage for VI rank, you find that intelligence is the attribute which receives the highest percentage. In other words, a majority of people considers it as the least important and gives it the last rank. Therefore your answer is 2.
Test III : Test of Reasoning
Q.12. If (1) ‘A * B’ means “A is the mother of B” and (II) ‘A x B’ means “A is the husband of B”, which of the following shows ‘P is the father of Q’ ?
(1) Q * M x P (2) P * Q (3) Q * P (4) P x M * Q
(5)None of these
Q.13. Ashok is standing at P. He walks 10 metres towards the South; then he walks 20 metres towards the West; then he walks 10 metres towards the South; then he walks 20 metres towards the East; then he walks 5 metres towards the North and reaches Q. What is the straight distance between P and Q in metres ?
(1) Zero (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 15 (5) None of these
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
1. You are advised to bring with you the following things:
(i) Call-letter with your identification document.
(ii) Completely filled in bio-data information on the sample answersheet provided at the end of this booklet.
(iii) Two HB pencils, a pencil sharpener and a good quality eraser.
(iv) One ballpoint pen.
2. While filling in the bio-data information on the Specimen Answersheet, please fill in YOUR bio-data information. The completed bio-data information on the sample answersheet will help you to fill the same information on the answersheet that will be given to you in the examination hall.
3. Kindly note that there will be penalty for wrong answers
Showing posts with label 3i Infotech Paper. Show all posts
Showing posts with label 3i Infotech Paper. Show all posts
Sunday, 6 July 2008
Whole Testpaper Paper - 31
Solve the following and check with the answers given at the end.
IIt was calculated that 75 men could complete a piece of work in 20 days. When work was scheduled to commence, it was found necessary to send 25 men to another project. How much longer will it take to complete the work?
A student divided a number by 2/3 when he required to multiply by 3/2. Calculate the percentage of error in his result.
A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg.
His gain is …%.
A software engineer has the capability of thinking 100 lines of code in five minutes and can type 100 lines of code in 10 minutes. He takes a break for five minutes after every ten minutes. How many lines of codes will he complete typing after an hour?
A man was engaged on a job for 30 days on the condition that he would get a wage of Rs. 10 for the day he works, but he have to pay a fine of Rs. 2 for each day of his absence. If he gets Rs. 216 at the end, he was absent for work for ... days
A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days, employed 75 men each working 8 hours daily. After 90 days, only 2/7 of the work was completed. Increasing the number of men by ________ each working now for 10 hours daily, the work can be completed in time.
what is a percent of b divided by b percent of a?
(a) a (b) b (c) 1 (d) 10 (d) 100
A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain. The amount paid by him was Rs._______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart
A tennis marker is trying to put together a team of four players for a tennis tournament out of seven available. males - a, b and c; females – m, n, o and p. All players are of equal ability and there must be at least two males in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other under the following restrictions: b should not play with m, c should not play with p, and a should not play with o.
Which of the following statements must be false?
1. b and p cannot be selected togethe
2. c and o cannot be selected together
3. c and n cannot be selected together.
10-12. The following figure depicts three views of a cube. Based on this, answer questions 10-12.
1
3
6
The number on the faces adjacent to the face marked 5 are ______
Which of the following pairs does not correctly give the numbers on the opposite faces.
(1) 6,5 (2) 4,1 (3) 1,3 (4) 4,2
Five farmers have 7, 9, 11, 13 & 14 apple trees, respectively in their orchards. Last year, each of them discovered that every tree in their own orchard bore exactly the same number of apples. Further, if the third farmer gives one apple to the first, and the fifth gives three to each of the second and the fourth, they would all have exactly the same number of apples. What were the yields per tree in the orchards of the third and fourth farmers?
Five boys were climbing a hill. J was following H. R was just ahead of G. K was between G & H. They were climbing up in a column. Who was the second
15-18 John is undecided which of the four novels to buy. He is considering a spy thriller, a Murder mystery, a Gothic romance and a science fiction novel. The books are written by Rothko, Gorky, Burchfield and Hopper, not necessary in that order, and published by Heron, Piegon, Blueja and sparrow, not necessary in that order.
(1) The book by Rothko is published by Sparrow.
(2) The Spy thriller is published by Heron.
(3) The science fiction novel is by Burchfield and is not published by Blueja.
(4)The Gothic romance is by Hopper
Pigeon publishes ___________
The novel by Gorky ____________
John purchases books by the authors whose names come first and third in alphabetical order. He does not buy the books ______
On the basis of the first paragraph and statement (2), (3) and (4) only, it is possible to deduce that
1. Rothko wrote the murder mystery or the spy thriller
2. Sparrow published the murder mystery or the spy thriller
3. The book by Burchfield is published by Sparrow
If a light flashes every 6 seconds, how many times will it flash in ¾ of an hour?
A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)
If point P is on line segment AB, then which of the following is always true?
(1) AP = PB (2) AP > PB (3) PB > AP (4) AB > AP (5) AB > AP + PB
All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates. Which of the following conclusions drawn from the above statement is correct All men are mammals All mammals are men Some vertebrates are mammals. None
Which of the following statements drawn from the given statements are correct?Given:All watches sold in that shop are of high standard. Some of the HMT watches are sold in that shop.
a) All watches of high standard were manufactured by HMT.
b) Some of the HMT watches are of high standard.
c) None of the HMT watches is of high standard.
d) Some of the HMT watches of high standard are sold in that shop.
23-27.1. Ashland is north of East Liverpool and west of Coshocton.
2. Bowling green is north of Ashland and west of Fredericktown.
3. Dover is south and east of Ashland
4. East Liverpool is north of Fredericktown and east of Dover.
5. Fredericktown is north of Dover and west of Ashland.
6. Coshocton is south of Fredericktown and west of Dover
Which of the towns mentioned is furthest of the north – wes
(a) Ashland (b) Bowling green (c) Coshocton (d) East Liverpool (e) Fredericktown
Which of the following must be both north and east of Fredericktown
(a) Ashland (b) Coshocton (c) East Liverpool
I a only II b only III c only IV a & b V a & c
Which of the following towns must be situated both south and west of at least one other town?
A. Ashland only
B. Ashland and Fredericktown
C. Dover and Fredericktown
D. Dover, Coshocton and Fredericktown
E. Coshocton, Dover and East Liverpool
Which of the following statements, if true, would make the information in the numbered statements more specific?
(a) Coshocton is north of Dover.
(b) East Liverpool is north of Dover
(c) Ashland is east of Bowling green.
(d) Coshocton is east of Fredericktown
(e) Bowling green is north of Fredericktown
Which of the numbered statements gives information that can be deduced from one or more of the other statements
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6
Eight friends Harsha, Fakis, Balaji, Eswar, Dhinesh, Chandra, Geetha, and Ahmed are sitting in a circle facing the center. Balaji is sitting between Geetha and Dhinesh. Harsha is third to the left of Balaji and second to the right of Ahmed. Chandra is sitting between Ahmed and Geetha and Balaji and Eshwar are not sitting opposite to each other. Who is third to the left of Dhinesh?
If every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, rest all are written in capital letters, how the month “ September” be written.
(1) SeptEMbEr (2) SEpTeMBEr (3) SeptembeR
(4) SepteMber (5) None of the above.
The length of the side of a square is represented by x+2. The length of the side of an equilateral triangle is 2x. If the square and the equilateral triangle have equal perimeter, then the value of x is _______
It takes Mr. Karthik y hours to complete typing a manuscript. After 2 hours, he was called away. What fractional part of the assignment was left incomplete?
Which of the following is larger than 3/5?
(1)½ (2) 39/50 (3) 7/25 (4) 3/10 (5) 59/100
The number that does not have a reciprocal is ____________.
There are 3 persons Sudhir, Arvind, and Gauri. Sudhir lent cars to Arvind and Gauri as many as they had already. After some time Arvind gave as many cars to Sudhir and Gauri as many as they have. After sometime Gauri did the same thing. At the end of this transaction each one of them had 24. Find the cars each originally had.
A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain. The amount paid by him was Rs._______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart
Which of the numbered statements gives information that can be deduced from one or more of the other statements
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6
Eight friends Harsha, Fakis, Balaji, Eswar, Dhinesh, Chandra, Geetha, and Ahmed are sitting in a circle facing the center. Balaji is sitting between Geetha and Dhinesh. Harsha is third to the left of Balaji and second to the right of Ahmed. Chandra is sitting between Ahmed and Geetha and Balaji and Eshwar are not sitting opposite to each other. Who is third to the left of Dhinesh?
If every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, rest all are written in capital letters, how the month “ September” be written.
(1) SeptEMbEr (2) SEpTeMBEr (3) SeptembeR
(4) SepteMber (5) None of the above.
The length of the side of a square is represented by x+2. The length of the side of an equilateral triangle is 2x. If the square and the equilateral triangle have equal perimeter, then the value of x is _______
It takes Mr. Karthik y hours to complete typing a manuscript. After 2 hours, he was called away. What fractional part of the assignment was left incomplete?
Which of the following is larger than 3/5?
(1)½ (2) 39/50 (3) 7/25 (4) 3/10 (5) 59/100
The number that does not have a reciprocal is ____________.
There are 3 persons Sudhir, Arvind, and Gauri. Sudhir lent cars to Arvind and Gauri as many as they had already. After some time Arvind gave as many cars to Sudhir and Gauri as many as they have. After sometime Gauri did the same thing. At the end of this transaction each one of them had 24. Find the cars each originally had.
A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain. The amount paid by him was Rs._______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart
Answers:
Answer: 30 days.
Explanation:
Before:
One day work = 1 / 20
One man’s one day work = 1 / ( 20 * 75)
Now:
No. Of workers = 50
One day work = 50 * 1 / ( 20 * 75)
The total no. of days required to complete the work = (75 * 20) / 50 = 30
Answer: 0
Explanation:
Since 3x / 2 = x / (2 / 3)
Answer:5.3 %
Explanation:
He sells 950 grams of pulses and gains 50 grams.
If he sells 100 grams of pulses then he will gain (50 / 950) *100 = 5.26
Answer:250 lines of codes
Answer: 7 days
Explanation:
The equation portraying the given problem is:
10 * x – 2 * (30 – x) = 216
where x is the number of working days.Solving this we get x = 23
Number of days he was absent was 7 (30-23) days.
Answer: 150 men
Explanation:
One day’s work = 2 / (7 * 90)
One hour’s work = 2 / (7 * 90 * 8)
One man’s work = 2 / (7 * 90 * 8 * 75)
The remaining work (5/7) has to be completed within 60 days, because the total number of days allotted for the project is 150 days.
So we get the equation
(2 * 10 * x * 60) / (7 * 90 * 8 * 75) = 5/7 where x is the number of men working after the 90th day.
We get x = 225. Since we have 75 men already, it is enough to add only 150 men.
Answer: (c) 1
Explanation:
a percent of b : (a/100) * b
b percent of a : (b/100) * a
a percent of b divided by b percent of a : ((a / 100 )*b) / (b/100) * a )) = 1
Answer: Cost price of horse = Rs. 400 & the cost price of cart = 200.
Explanation:-
Let x be the cost price of the horse and y be the cost price of the cart.
In the first sale there is no loss or profit. (i.e.) The loss obtained is equal to the gain.
Therefore (10/100) * x = (20/100) * y
X = 2 * y -----------------(1)
In the second sale, he lost Rs. 10. (i.e.) The loss is greater than the profit by Rs. 10.
Therefore (5 / 100) * x = (5 / 100) * y + 10 -------(2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
(10 / 100) * y = (5 / 100) * y + 10
(5 / 100) * y = 10
y = 200
From (1) 2 * 200 = x = 400
Answer : 3.
Explanation:
Since inclusion of any male player will reject a female from the team. Since there should be four member in the team and only three males are available, the girl, n should included in the team always irrespective of others selection.
Answer:5
Answer: 1,2,3 & 4
Answer: B
Answer:11 & 9 apples per tree.
Explanation:
Let a, b, c, d & e be the total number of apples bored per year in A, B, C, D & E ‘s orchard. Given that a + 1 = b + 3 = c – 1 = d + 3 = e – 6
But the question is to find the number of apples bored per tree in C and D ‘s orchard. If is enough to consider c – 1 = d + 3.
Since the number of trees in C’s orchard is 11 and that of D’s orchard is 13. Let x and y be the number of apples bored per tree in C & d ‘s orchard respectively.
Therefore 11 x – 1 = 13 y + 3
By trial and error method, we get the value for x and y as 11 and 9
Answer: G.
Explanation:
The order in which they are climbing is R – G – K – H – J
-18
Answer:
Explanation:
Since Blueja doesn’t publish the novel by Burchfield and Heron publishes the novel spy thriller, Piegon publishes the novel by Burchfield.Since Hopper writes Gothic romance and Heron publishes the novel spy thriller, Blueja publishes the novel by Hopper.Since Heron publishes the novel spy thriller and Heron publishes the novel by Gorky, Gorky writes Spy thriller and Rathko writes Murder mystery.
Answer: 451 times.
Explanation:There are 60 minutes in an hour.
In ¾ of an hour there are (60 * ¾) minutes = 45 minutes.
In ¾ of an hour there are (60 * 45) seconds = 2700 seconds.
Light flashed for every 6 seconds.
In 2700 seconds 2700/6 = 450 times.
The count start after the first flash, the light will flashes 451 times in ¾ of an hour.
Answer: (4
Explanation:
Since p is a point on the line segment AB, AB > AP
Answer: (c)
Answer: (b) & (d).
Answer: Fakis
Explanation:
Answer: (5).
Explanation: Since every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, the letters written in small letter are b, d, f...In the first two answers the letter E is written in both small & capital letters, so they are not the correct answers. But in third and fourth answers the letter is written in small letter instead capital letter, so they are not the answers.
Answer: x = 4
Explanation: Since the side of the square is x + 2, its perimeter = 4 (x + 2) = 4x + 8. Since the side of the equilateral triangle is 2x, its perimeter = 3 * 2x = 6x
Also, the perimeters of both are equal.
(i.e.) 4x + 8 = 6x
(i.e.) 2x = 8 è x = 4.
Answer: (y – 2) / y.
Explanation: To type a manuscript karthik took y hours.
Therefore his speed in typing = 1/y. He was called away after 2 hours of typing.
Therefore the work completed = 1/y * 2. Therefore the remaining work to be completed = 1 – 2/y. (i.e.) work to be completed = (y-2)/y
Answer: (2)
Answer: 1
Explanation: One is the only number exists without reciprocal because the reciprocal of one is one itself.
Answer: Sudhir had 39 cars, Arvind had 21 cars and Gauri had 12 cars.
Explanation: Sudhir Arvind Gauri
Finally 24 24
Before Gauri’s transaction 12 12 4
Before Arvind’s transaction 6 42 24
Before Sudhir’ s transaction 39 21 12
35. Answer: Cost price of horse: Rs. 400 & Cost price of cart: Rs. 20
Explanation: Let x be the cost of horse & y be the cost of the cart.
10 % of loss in selling horse = 20 % of gain in selling the cart
Therefore (10 / 100) * x = (20 * 100) * y
x = 2y -----------(1)
5 % of loss in selling the horse is 10 more than the 5 % gain in selling the cart.
Therefore (5 / 100) * x - 10 = (5 / 100) *
5x - 1000 = 5
Substituting (1)
10y - 1000 = 5y; 5y = 1000; y = 200; x = 400 from (1)
For the following, find the next term in the series
6, 24, 60,120, 210
a) 336 b) 366 c) 330 d) 660 Answer : a) 336
Explanation : The series is 1.2.3, 2.3.4, 3.4.5, 4.5.6, 5.6.7, ..... ( ,., means product)
1, 5, 13, 25 Answer : 41
Explanation : The series is of the form 0^2+1^2, 1^2+2^2,...
0, 5, 8, 17 Answer : 24
Explanation : 1^2-1, 2^2+1, 3^2-1, 4^2+1, 5^2-1
1, 8, 9, 64, 25 (Hint : Every successive terms are related) Answer : 216
Explanation : 1^2, 2^3, 3^2, 4^3, 5^2, 6^3
8,24,12,36,18,54 Answer : 27
71,76,69,74,67,72 Answer : 67
5,9,16,29,54 Answer : 103
Explanation : 5*2-1=9; 9*2-2=16; 16*2-3=29; 29*2-4=54; 54*2-5=103
1,2,4,10,16,40,64 (Successive terms are related) Answer : 200
Explanation : The series is powers of 2 (2^0,2^1,..).
All digits are less than 8. Every second number is in octal number system.
128 should follow 64. 128 base 10 = 200 base 8.
Exercise 2.2
Find the odd man out.
3,5,7,12,13,17,19 Answer : 12
Explanation : All but 12 are odd numbers
2,5,10,17,26,37,50,64 Answer : 64
Explanation : 2+3=5; 5+5=10; 10+7=17; 17+9=26; 26+11=37; 37+13=50; 50+15=65;
105,85,60,30,0,-45,-90 Answer : 0
Explanation : 105-20=85; 85-25=60; 60-30=30; 30-35=-5; -5-40=-45; -45-45=-90;
Solve the following.
What is the number of zeros at the end of the product of the numbers from 1 to 100? Answer : 127
A fast typist can type some matter in 2 hours and a slow typist can type the same in 3 hours. If both type combinely, in how much time will they finish? Answer : 1 hr 12 min
Explanation : The fast typist,s work done in 1 hr = 1/2
The slow typist,s work done in 1 hr = 1/3
If they work combinely, work done in 1 hr = 1/2+1/3 = 5/6
So, the work will be completed in 6/5 hours. i.e., 1+1/5 hours = 1hr 12 min
Gavaskar,s average in his first 50 innings was 50. After the 51st innings, his average was 51. How many runs did he score in his 51st innings. (supposing that he lost his wicket in his 51st innings) Answer : 101
Explanation : Total score after 50 innings = 50*50 = 2500
Total score after 51 innings = 51*51 = 2601. So, runs made in the 51st innings = 2601-2500 = 101. If he had not lost his wicket in his 51st innings, he would have scored an unbeaten 50 in his 51st innings.
Out of 80 coins, one is counterfeit. What is the minimum number of weighings needed to find out the counterfeit coin? Answer : 4
What can you conclude from the statement : All green are blue, all blue are red. ?
(i) some blue are green
(ii) some red are green
(iii) some green are not red
(iv) all red are blue
(a) i or ii but not both
(b) i & ii only
(c) iii or iv but not both
(d) iii & iv Answer : (b)
A rectangular plate with length 8 inches, breadth 11 inches and thickness 2 inches is available. What is the length of the circular rod with diameter 8 inches and equal to the volume of the rectangular plate? Answer : 3.5 inches
Explanation : Volume of the circular rod (cylinder) = Volume of the rectangular plate
(22/7)*4*4*h = 8*11*2 h = 7/2 = 3.5
What is the sum of all numbers between 100 and 1000 which are divisible by 14 ?
Answer : 35392
Explanation : The number closest to 100 which is greater than 100 and divisible by 14 is 112, which is the first term of the series which has to be summed.The number closest to 1000 which is less than 1000 and divisible by 14 is 994, which is the last term of the series. 112 + 126 + .... + 994 = 14(8+9+ ... + 71) = 35392
If s(a) denotes square root of a, find the value of s(12+s(12+s(12+ ...... upto infinity.
Answer : 4
Explanation : Let x = s(12+s(12+s(12+.....
can write x = s(12+x). i.e., x^2 = 12 + x. Solving this quadratic equation, we get x = -3 or x=4. Sum cannot be -ve and hence sum = 4.
A cylindrical container has a radius of eight inches with a height of three inches. Compute how many inches should be added to either the radius or height to give the same increase in volume? Answer : 16/3 inches
Explanation : Let x be the amount of increase. The volume will increase by the same amount if the radius increased or the height is increased.
So, the effect on increasing height is equal to the effect on increasing the radius.
i.e., (22/7)*8*8*(3+x) = (22/7)*(8+x)*(8+x)*3
Solving the quadratic equation we get the x = 0 or 16/3. The possible increase would be by 16/3 inches.
With just six weights and a balance scale, you can weigh any unit number of kgs from 1 to 364. What could be the six weights? Answer : 1, 3, 9, 27, 81, 243 (All powers of 3)
If time at this moment is 9 P.M., what will be the time 23999999992 hours later?
Answer : 1 P.M.
Explanation : 24 billion hours later, it would be 9 P.M. and 8 hours before that it would be 1 P.M.
Diophantus passed one sixth of his life in childhood, one twelfth in youth, and one seventh more as a bachelor; five years after his marriage a son was born who died four years before his father at half his final age. How old is Diophantus?
Answer : 84 years
Explanation : x/6 + x/12 + x/7 + 5 + x/2 + 4 = x
How big will an angle of one and a half degree look through a glass that magnifies things three times?
Answer : 1 1/2 degrees
Explanation : The magnifying glass cannot increase the magnitude of an angle.
Divide 45 into four parts such that when 2 is added to the first part, 2 is subtracted from the second part, 2 is multiplied by the third part and the fourth part is divided by two, all result in the same number. Answer: 8, 12, 5, 20
Explanation: a + b + c + d =45; a+2 = b-2 = 2c = d/2; a=b-4; c = (b-2)/2; d = 2(b-2); b-4 + b + (b-2)/2 + 2(b-2) = 45;
I drove 60 km at 30 kmph and then an additional 60 km at 50 kmph. Compute my average speed over my 120 km. Answer : 37 1/2
Explanation : Time reqd for the first 60 km = 120 min.; Time reqd for the second 60 km = 72 min.; Total time reqd = 192 min Avg speed = (60*120)/192 = 37 1/2
Questions 16 and 17 are based on the following :
Five executives of European Corporation hold a Conference in Rome
Mr. A converses in Spanish & Italian
Mr. B, a spaniard, knows English also
Mr. C knows English and belongs to Italy
Mr. D converses in French and Spanish
Mr. E , a native of Italy knows French
Which of the following can act as interpreter if Mr. C & Mr. D wish to converse
a) only Mr. A b) Only Mr. B c) Mr. A & Mr. B d) Any of the other three
Answer : d) Any of the other three.
Explanation : From the data given, we can infer the following. A knows Spanish, Italian
B knows Spanish, English, C knows Italian, English, D knows Spanish, French
E knows Italian, French. To act as an interpreter between C and D, a person has to know one of the combinations Italian&Spanish, Italian&French, English&Spanish, English&French . A, B, and E know atleast one of the combinations.
If a 6th executive is brought in, to be understood by maximum number of original five he should be fluent in
a) English & French b) Italian & Spanish c) English & French d) French & Italian
Answer : b) Italian & Spanish
Explanation : No of executives who know
i) English is 2 ii) Spanish is 3 iii) Italian is 3 iv) French is 2
Italian & Spanish are spoken by the maximum no of executives. So, if the 6th executive is fluent in Italian & Spanish, he can communicate with all the original five because everybody knows either Spanish or Italian.
What is the sum of the first 25 natural odd numbers? Answer : 625
Explanation : The sum of the first n natural odd nos is square(n).
1+3 = 4 = square(2) 1+3+5 = 9 = square(3)
The sum of any seven consecutive numbers is divisible by
a) 2 b) 7 c) 3 d) 11
Try the following
There are seventy clerks working in a company, of which 30 are females. Also, 30 clerks are married; 24 clerks are above 25 years of age; 19 married clerks are above 25 years, of which 7 are males; 12 males are above 25 years of age; and 15 males are married. How many bachelor girls are there and how many of these are above 25?
A man sailed off from the North Pole. After covering 2,000 miles in one direction he turned West, sailed 2,000 miles, turned North and sailed ahead another 2,000 miles till he met his friend. How far was he from the North Pole and in what direction?
Here is a series of comments on the ages of three persons J, R, S by themselves.
S : The difference between R,s age and mine is three years.
J : R is the youngest.
R : Either I am 24 years old or J 25 or S 26.
J : All are above 24 years of age.
S : I am the eldest if and only if R is not the youngest.
R : S is elder to me.
J : I am the eldest.
R : S is not 27 years old.
S : The sum of my age and J,s is two more than twice R,s age.
One of the three had been telling a lie throughout whereas others had spoken the truth. Determine the ages of S,J,R.
In a group of five people, what is the probability of finding two persons with the same month of birth?
A father and his son go out for a ,walk-and-run, every morning around a track formed by an equilateral triangle. The father,s walking speed is 2 mph and his running speed is 5 mph. The son,s walking and running speeds are twice that of his father. Both start together from one apex of the triangle, the son going clockwise and the father anti-clockwise. Initially the father runs and the son walks for a certain period of time. Thereafter, as soon as the father starts walking, the son starts running. Both complete the course in 45 minutes. For how long does the father run? Where do the two cross each other?
The Director of Medical Services was on his annual visit to the ENT Hospital. While going through the out patients, records he came across the following data for a particular day : " Ear consultations 45; Nose 50; Throat 70; Ear and Nose 30; Nose and Throat 20; Ear and Throat 30; Ear, Nose and Throat 10; Total patients 100." Then he came to the conclusion that the records were bogus. Was he right?
Amongst Ram, Sham and Gobind are a doctor, a lawyer and a police officer. They are married to Radha, Gita and Sita (not in order). Each of the wives have a profession. Gobind,s wife is an artist. Ram is not married to Gita. The lawyer,s wife is a teacher. Radha is married to the police officer. Sita is an expert cook. Who,s who?
What should come next?
1, 2, 4, 10, 16, 40, 64,
Questions 9-12 are based on the following :
Three adults – Roberto, Sarah and Vicky – will be traveling in a van with five children – Freddy, Hillary, Jonathan, Lupe, and Marta. The van has a driver’s seat and one passenger seat in the front, and two benches behind the front seats, one beach behind the other. Each bench has room for exactly three people. Everyone must sit in a seat or on a bench, and seating is subject to the following restrictions:
An adult must sit on each b Either Roberto or Sarah must sit in the driver’s Jonathan must sit immediately beside Marta.
Of the following, who can sit in the front passenger seat ?
(a) Jonathan (b) Lupe (c) Roberto (d) Sarah (e) Vicky
Which of the following groups of three can sit together on a bench?
(a) Freddy, Jonathan and Marta (b) Freddy, Jonathan and Vicky
(c) Freddy, Sarah and Vicky (d) Hillary, Lupe and Sarah
(e) Lupe, Marta and Roberto
Freddy sits immediately beside Vicky, which of the following cannot be true ?
Jonathan sits immediately beside Sarah
Lupe sits immediately beside Vicky
Hillary sits in the front passenger seat
Freddy sits on the same bench as Hillary
Hillary sits on the same bench as Roberto
If Sarah sits on a bench that is behind where Jonathan is sitting, which of the following must be true ?
Hillary sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of where Marta is sitting
Lupe sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of where Freddy is sitting
Freddy sits on the same bench as Hillary
Lupe sits on the same bench as Sarah
Marta sits on the same bench as Vicky
Make six squares of the same size using twelve match-sticks. (Hint : You will need an adhesive to arrange the required figure)
A farmer has two rectangular fields. The larger field has twice the length and 4 times the width of the smaller field. If the smaller field has area K, then the are of the larger field is greater than the area of the smaller field by what amount?
(a) 6K (b) 8K (c) 12K (d) 7K
Nine equal circles are enclosed in a square whose area is 36sq units. Find the area of each circle.
There are 9 cards. Arrange them in a 3*3 matrix. Cards are of 4 colors. They are red, yellow, blue, green. Conditions for arrangement: one red card must be in first row or second row. 2 green cards should be in 3rd column. Yellow cards must be in the 3 corners only. Two blue cards must be in the 2nd row. At least one green card in each row.
Is z less than w? z and w are real numbers.
(I) z2 = 25
(II) w = 9
To answer the question,
a) Either I or II is sufficient
b) Both I and II are sufficient but neither of them is alone sufficient
c) I & II are sufficient
d) Both are not sufficient
A speaks truth 70% of the time; B speaks truth 80% of the time. What is the probability that both are contradicting each other?
In a family 7 children don,t eat spinach, 6 don,t eat carrot, 5 don,t eat beans, 4 don,t eat spinach & carrots, 3 don,t eat carrot & beans, 2 don,t eat beans & spinach. One doesn,t eat all 3. Find the no. of children.
Anna, Bena, Catherina and Diana are at their monthly business meeting. Their occupations are author, biologist, chemist and doctor, but not necessarily in that order. Diana just told the neighbour, who is a biologist that Catherina was on her way with doughnuts. Anna is sitting across from the doctor and next to the chemist. The doctor was thinking that Bena was a good name for parent,s to choose, but didn,t say anything. What is each person,s
IIt was calculated that 75 men could complete a piece of work in 20 days. When work was scheduled to commence, it was found necessary to send 25 men to another project. How much longer will it take to complete the work?
A student divided a number by 2/3 when he required to multiply by 3/2. Calculate the percentage of error in his result.
A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg.
His gain is …%.
A software engineer has the capability of thinking 100 lines of code in five minutes and can type 100 lines of code in 10 minutes. He takes a break for five minutes after every ten minutes. How many lines of codes will he complete typing after an hour?
A man was engaged on a job for 30 days on the condition that he would get a wage of Rs. 10 for the day he works, but he have to pay a fine of Rs. 2 for each day of his absence. If he gets Rs. 216 at the end, he was absent for work for ... days
A contractor agreeing to finish a work in 150 days, employed 75 men each working 8 hours daily. After 90 days, only 2/7 of the work was completed. Increasing the number of men by ________ each working now for 10 hours daily, the work can be completed in time.
what is a percent of b divided by b percent of a?
(a) a (b) b (c) 1 (d) 10 (d) 100
A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain. The amount paid by him was Rs._______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart
A tennis marker is trying to put together a team of four players for a tennis tournament out of seven available. males - a, b and c; females – m, n, o and p. All players are of equal ability and there must be at least two males in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other under the following restrictions: b should not play with m, c should not play with p, and a should not play with o.
Which of the following statements must be false?
1. b and p cannot be selected togethe
2. c and o cannot be selected together
3. c and n cannot be selected together.
10-12. The following figure depicts three views of a cube. Based on this, answer questions 10-12.
1
3
6
The number on the faces adjacent to the face marked 5 are ______
Which of the following pairs does not correctly give the numbers on the opposite faces.
(1) 6,5 (2) 4,1 (3) 1,3 (4) 4,2
Five farmers have 7, 9, 11, 13 & 14 apple trees, respectively in their orchards. Last year, each of them discovered that every tree in their own orchard bore exactly the same number of apples. Further, if the third farmer gives one apple to the first, and the fifth gives three to each of the second and the fourth, they would all have exactly the same number of apples. What were the yields per tree in the orchards of the third and fourth farmers?
Five boys were climbing a hill. J was following H. R was just ahead of G. K was between G & H. They were climbing up in a column. Who was the second
15-18 John is undecided which of the four novels to buy. He is considering a spy thriller, a Murder mystery, a Gothic romance and a science fiction novel. The books are written by Rothko, Gorky, Burchfield and Hopper, not necessary in that order, and published by Heron, Piegon, Blueja and sparrow, not necessary in that order.
(1) The book by Rothko is published by Sparrow.
(2) The Spy thriller is published by Heron.
(3) The science fiction novel is by Burchfield and is not published by Blueja.
(4)The Gothic romance is by Hopper
Pigeon publishes ___________
The novel by Gorky ____________
John purchases books by the authors whose names come first and third in alphabetical order. He does not buy the books ______
On the basis of the first paragraph and statement (2), (3) and (4) only, it is possible to deduce that
1. Rothko wrote the murder mystery or the spy thriller
2. Sparrow published the murder mystery or the spy thriller
3. The book by Burchfield is published by Sparrow
If a light flashes every 6 seconds, how many times will it flash in ¾ of an hour?
A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)
If point P is on line segment AB, then which of the following is always true?
(1) AP = PB (2) AP > PB (3) PB > AP (4) AB > AP (5) AB > AP + PB
All men are vertebrates. Some mammals are vertebrates. Which of the following conclusions drawn from the above statement is correct All men are mammals All mammals are men Some vertebrates are mammals. None
Which of the following statements drawn from the given statements are correct?Given:All watches sold in that shop are of high standard. Some of the HMT watches are sold in that shop.
a) All watches of high standard were manufactured by HMT.
b) Some of the HMT watches are of high standard.
c) None of the HMT watches is of high standard.
d) Some of the HMT watches of high standard are sold in that shop.
23-27.1. Ashland is north of East Liverpool and west of Coshocton.
2. Bowling green is north of Ashland and west of Fredericktown.
3. Dover is south and east of Ashland
4. East Liverpool is north of Fredericktown and east of Dover.
5. Fredericktown is north of Dover and west of Ashland.
6. Coshocton is south of Fredericktown and west of Dover
Which of the towns mentioned is furthest of the north – wes
(a) Ashland (b) Bowling green (c) Coshocton (d) East Liverpool (e) Fredericktown
Which of the following must be both north and east of Fredericktown
(a) Ashland (b) Coshocton (c) East Liverpool
I a only II b only III c only IV a & b V a & c
Which of the following towns must be situated both south and west of at least one other town?
A. Ashland only
B. Ashland and Fredericktown
C. Dover and Fredericktown
D. Dover, Coshocton and Fredericktown
E. Coshocton, Dover and East Liverpool
Which of the following statements, if true, would make the information in the numbered statements more specific?
(a) Coshocton is north of Dover.
(b) East Liverpool is north of Dover
(c) Ashland is east of Bowling green.
(d) Coshocton is east of Fredericktown
(e) Bowling green is north of Fredericktown
Which of the numbered statements gives information that can be deduced from one or more of the other statements
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6
Eight friends Harsha, Fakis, Balaji, Eswar, Dhinesh, Chandra, Geetha, and Ahmed are sitting in a circle facing the center. Balaji is sitting between Geetha and Dhinesh. Harsha is third to the left of Balaji and second to the right of Ahmed. Chandra is sitting between Ahmed and Geetha and Balaji and Eshwar are not sitting opposite to each other. Who is third to the left of Dhinesh?
If every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, rest all are written in capital letters, how the month “ September” be written.
(1) SeptEMbEr (2) SEpTeMBEr (3) SeptembeR
(4) SepteMber (5) None of the above.
The length of the side of a square is represented by x+2. The length of the side of an equilateral triangle is 2x. If the square and the equilateral triangle have equal perimeter, then the value of x is _______
It takes Mr. Karthik y hours to complete typing a manuscript. After 2 hours, he was called away. What fractional part of the assignment was left incomplete?
Which of the following is larger than 3/5?
(1)½ (2) 39/50 (3) 7/25 (4) 3/10 (5) 59/100
The number that does not have a reciprocal is ____________.
There are 3 persons Sudhir, Arvind, and Gauri. Sudhir lent cars to Arvind and Gauri as many as they had already. After some time Arvind gave as many cars to Sudhir and Gauri as many as they have. After sometime Gauri did the same thing. At the end of this transaction each one of them had 24. Find the cars each originally had.
A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain. The amount paid by him was Rs._______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart
Which of the numbered statements gives information that can be deduced from one or more of the other statements
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4 (E) 6
Eight friends Harsha, Fakis, Balaji, Eswar, Dhinesh, Chandra, Geetha, and Ahmed are sitting in a circle facing the center. Balaji is sitting between Geetha and Dhinesh. Harsha is third to the left of Balaji and second to the right of Ahmed. Chandra is sitting between Ahmed and Geetha and Balaji and Eshwar are not sitting opposite to each other. Who is third to the left of Dhinesh?
If every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, rest all are written in capital letters, how the month “ September” be written.
(1) SeptEMbEr (2) SEpTeMBEr (3) SeptembeR
(4) SepteMber (5) None of the above.
The length of the side of a square is represented by x+2. The length of the side of an equilateral triangle is 2x. If the square and the equilateral triangle have equal perimeter, then the value of x is _______
It takes Mr. Karthik y hours to complete typing a manuscript. After 2 hours, he was called away. What fractional part of the assignment was left incomplete?
Which of the following is larger than 3/5?
(1)½ (2) 39/50 (3) 7/25 (4) 3/10 (5) 59/100
The number that does not have a reciprocal is ____________.
There are 3 persons Sudhir, Arvind, and Gauri. Sudhir lent cars to Arvind and Gauri as many as they had already. After some time Arvind gave as many cars to Sudhir and Gauri as many as they have. After sometime Gauri did the same thing. At the end of this transaction each one of them had 24. Find the cars each originally had.
A man bought a horse and a cart. If he sold the horse at 10 % loss and the cart at 20 % gain, he would not lose anything; but if he sold the horse at 5% loss and the cart at 5% gain, he would lose Rs. 10 in the bargain. The amount paid by him was Rs._______ for the horse and Rs.________ for the cart
Answers:
Answer: 30 days.
Explanation:
Before:
One day work = 1 / 20
One man’s one day work = 1 / ( 20 * 75)
Now:
No. Of workers = 50
One day work = 50 * 1 / ( 20 * 75)
The total no. of days required to complete the work = (75 * 20) / 50 = 30
Answer: 0
Explanation:
Since 3x / 2 = x / (2 / 3)
Answer:5.3 %
Explanation:
He sells 950 grams of pulses and gains 50 grams.
If he sells 100 grams of pulses then he will gain (50 / 950) *100 = 5.26
Answer:250 lines of codes
Answer: 7 days
Explanation:
The equation portraying the given problem is:
10 * x – 2 * (30 – x) = 216
where x is the number of working days.Solving this we get x = 23
Number of days he was absent was 7 (30-23) days.
Answer: 150 men
Explanation:
One day’s work = 2 / (7 * 90)
One hour’s work = 2 / (7 * 90 * 8)
One man’s work = 2 / (7 * 90 * 8 * 75)
The remaining work (5/7) has to be completed within 60 days, because the total number of days allotted for the project is 150 days.
So we get the equation
(2 * 10 * x * 60) / (7 * 90 * 8 * 75) = 5/7 where x is the number of men working after the 90th day.
We get x = 225. Since we have 75 men already, it is enough to add only 150 men.
Answer: (c) 1
Explanation:
a percent of b : (a/100) * b
b percent of a : (b/100) * a
a percent of b divided by b percent of a : ((a / 100 )*b) / (b/100) * a )) = 1
Answer: Cost price of horse = Rs. 400 & the cost price of cart = 200.
Explanation:-
Let x be the cost price of the horse and y be the cost price of the cart.
In the first sale there is no loss or profit. (i.e.) The loss obtained is equal to the gain.
Therefore (10/100) * x = (20/100) * y
X = 2 * y -----------------(1)
In the second sale, he lost Rs. 10. (i.e.) The loss is greater than the profit by Rs. 10.
Therefore (5 / 100) * x = (5 / 100) * y + 10 -------(2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get
(10 / 100) * y = (5 / 100) * y + 10
(5 / 100) * y = 10
y = 200
From (1) 2 * 200 = x = 400
Answer : 3.
Explanation:
Since inclusion of any male player will reject a female from the team. Since there should be four member in the team and only three males are available, the girl, n should included in the team always irrespective of others selection.
Answer:5
Answer: 1,2,3 & 4
Answer: B
Answer:11 & 9 apples per tree.
Explanation:
Let a, b, c, d & e be the total number of apples bored per year in A, B, C, D & E ‘s orchard. Given that a + 1 = b + 3 = c – 1 = d + 3 = e – 6
But the question is to find the number of apples bored per tree in C and D ‘s orchard. If is enough to consider c – 1 = d + 3.
Since the number of trees in C’s orchard is 11 and that of D’s orchard is 13. Let x and y be the number of apples bored per tree in C & d ‘s orchard respectively.
Therefore 11 x – 1 = 13 y + 3
By trial and error method, we get the value for x and y as 11 and 9
Answer: G.
Explanation:
The order in which they are climbing is R – G – K – H – J
-18
Answer:
Explanation:
Since Blueja doesn’t publish the novel by Burchfield and Heron publishes the novel spy thriller, Piegon publishes the novel by Burchfield.Since Hopper writes Gothic romance and Heron publishes the novel spy thriller, Blueja publishes the novel by Hopper.Since Heron publishes the novel spy thriller and Heron publishes the novel by Gorky, Gorky writes Spy thriller and Rathko writes Murder mystery.
Answer: 451 times.
Explanation:There are 60 minutes in an hour.
In ¾ of an hour there are (60 * ¾) minutes = 45 minutes.
In ¾ of an hour there are (60 * 45) seconds = 2700 seconds.
Light flashed for every 6 seconds.
In 2700 seconds 2700/6 = 450 times.
The count start after the first flash, the light will flashes 451 times in ¾ of an hour.
Answer: (4
Explanation:
Since p is a point on the line segment AB, AB > AP
Answer: (c)
Answer: (b) & (d).
Answer: Fakis
Explanation:
Answer: (5).
Explanation: Since every alternative letter starting from B of the English alphabet is written in small letter, the letters written in small letter are b, d, f...In the first two answers the letter E is written in both small & capital letters, so they are not the correct answers. But in third and fourth answers the letter is written in small letter instead capital letter, so they are not the answers.
Answer: x = 4
Explanation: Since the side of the square is x + 2, its perimeter = 4 (x + 2) = 4x + 8. Since the side of the equilateral triangle is 2x, its perimeter = 3 * 2x = 6x
Also, the perimeters of both are equal.
(i.e.) 4x + 8 = 6x
(i.e.) 2x = 8 è x = 4.
Answer: (y – 2) / y.
Explanation: To type a manuscript karthik took y hours.
Therefore his speed in typing = 1/y. He was called away after 2 hours of typing.
Therefore the work completed = 1/y * 2. Therefore the remaining work to be completed = 1 – 2/y. (i.e.) work to be completed = (y-2)/y
Answer: (2)
Answer: 1
Explanation: One is the only number exists without reciprocal because the reciprocal of one is one itself.
Answer: Sudhir had 39 cars, Arvind had 21 cars and Gauri had 12 cars.
Explanation: Sudhir Arvind Gauri
Finally 24 24
Before Gauri’s transaction 12 12 4
Before Arvind’s transaction 6 42 24
Before Sudhir’ s transaction 39 21 12
35. Answer: Cost price of horse: Rs. 400 & Cost price of cart: Rs. 20
Explanation: Let x be the cost of horse & y be the cost of the cart.
10 % of loss in selling horse = 20 % of gain in selling the cart
Therefore (10 / 100) * x = (20 * 100) * y
x = 2y -----------(1)
5 % of loss in selling the horse is 10 more than the 5 % gain in selling the cart.
Therefore (5 / 100) * x - 10 = (5 / 100) *
5x - 1000 = 5
Substituting (1)
10y - 1000 = 5y; 5y = 1000; y = 200; x = 400 from (1)
For the following, find the next term in the series
6, 24, 60,120, 210
a) 336 b) 366 c) 330 d) 660 Answer : a) 336
Explanation : The series is 1.2.3, 2.3.4, 3.4.5, 4.5.6, 5.6.7, ..... ( ,., means product)
1, 5, 13, 25 Answer : 41
Explanation : The series is of the form 0^2+1^2, 1^2+2^2,...
0, 5, 8, 17 Answer : 24
Explanation : 1^2-1, 2^2+1, 3^2-1, 4^2+1, 5^2-1
1, 8, 9, 64, 25 (Hint : Every successive terms are related) Answer : 216
Explanation : 1^2, 2^3, 3^2, 4^3, 5^2, 6^3
8,24,12,36,18,54 Answer : 27
71,76,69,74,67,72 Answer : 67
5,9,16,29,54 Answer : 103
Explanation : 5*2-1=9; 9*2-2=16; 16*2-3=29; 29*2-4=54; 54*2-5=103
1,2,4,10,16,40,64 (Successive terms are related) Answer : 200
Explanation : The series is powers of 2 (2^0,2^1,..).
All digits are less than 8. Every second number is in octal number system.
128 should follow 64. 128 base 10 = 200 base 8.
Exercise 2.2
Find the odd man out.
3,5,7,12,13,17,19 Answer : 12
Explanation : All but 12 are odd numbers
2,5,10,17,26,37,50,64 Answer : 64
Explanation : 2+3=5; 5+5=10; 10+7=17; 17+9=26; 26+11=37; 37+13=50; 50+15=65;
105,85,60,30,0,-45,-90 Answer : 0
Explanation : 105-20=85; 85-25=60; 60-30=30; 30-35=-5; -5-40=-45; -45-45=-90;
Solve the following.
What is the number of zeros at the end of the product of the numbers from 1 to 100? Answer : 127
A fast typist can type some matter in 2 hours and a slow typist can type the same in 3 hours. If both type combinely, in how much time will they finish? Answer : 1 hr 12 min
Explanation : The fast typist,s work done in 1 hr = 1/2
The slow typist,s work done in 1 hr = 1/3
If they work combinely, work done in 1 hr = 1/2+1/3 = 5/6
So, the work will be completed in 6/5 hours. i.e., 1+1/5 hours = 1hr 12 min
Gavaskar,s average in his first 50 innings was 50. After the 51st innings, his average was 51. How many runs did he score in his 51st innings. (supposing that he lost his wicket in his 51st innings) Answer : 101
Explanation : Total score after 50 innings = 50*50 = 2500
Total score after 51 innings = 51*51 = 2601. So, runs made in the 51st innings = 2601-2500 = 101. If he had not lost his wicket in his 51st innings, he would have scored an unbeaten 50 in his 51st innings.
Out of 80 coins, one is counterfeit. What is the minimum number of weighings needed to find out the counterfeit coin? Answer : 4
What can you conclude from the statement : All green are blue, all blue are red. ?
(i) some blue are green
(ii) some red are green
(iii) some green are not red
(iv) all red are blue
(a) i or ii but not both
(b) i & ii only
(c) iii or iv but not both
(d) iii & iv Answer : (b)
A rectangular plate with length 8 inches, breadth 11 inches and thickness 2 inches is available. What is the length of the circular rod with diameter 8 inches and equal to the volume of the rectangular plate? Answer : 3.5 inches
Explanation : Volume of the circular rod (cylinder) = Volume of the rectangular plate
(22/7)*4*4*h = 8*11*2 h = 7/2 = 3.5
What is the sum of all numbers between 100 and 1000 which are divisible by 14 ?
Answer : 35392
Explanation : The number closest to 100 which is greater than 100 and divisible by 14 is 112, which is the first term of the series which has to be summed.The number closest to 1000 which is less than 1000 and divisible by 14 is 994, which is the last term of the series. 112 + 126 + .... + 994 = 14(8+9+ ... + 71) = 35392
If s(a) denotes square root of a, find the value of s(12+s(12+s(12+ ...... upto infinity.
Answer : 4
Explanation : Let x = s(12+s(12+s(12+.....
can write x = s(12+x). i.e., x^2 = 12 + x. Solving this quadratic equation, we get x = -3 or x=4. Sum cannot be -ve and hence sum = 4.
A cylindrical container has a radius of eight inches with a height of three inches. Compute how many inches should be added to either the radius or height to give the same increase in volume? Answer : 16/3 inches
Explanation : Let x be the amount of increase. The volume will increase by the same amount if the radius increased or the height is increased.
So, the effect on increasing height is equal to the effect on increasing the radius.
i.e., (22/7)*8*8*(3+x) = (22/7)*(8+x)*(8+x)*3
Solving the quadratic equation we get the x = 0 or 16/3. The possible increase would be by 16/3 inches.
With just six weights and a balance scale, you can weigh any unit number of kgs from 1 to 364. What could be the six weights? Answer : 1, 3, 9, 27, 81, 243 (All powers of 3)
If time at this moment is 9 P.M., what will be the time 23999999992 hours later?
Answer : 1 P.M.
Explanation : 24 billion hours later, it would be 9 P.M. and 8 hours before that it would be 1 P.M.
Diophantus passed one sixth of his life in childhood, one twelfth in youth, and one seventh more as a bachelor; five years after his marriage a son was born who died four years before his father at half his final age. How old is Diophantus?
Answer : 84 years
Explanation : x/6 + x/12 + x/7 + 5 + x/2 + 4 = x
How big will an angle of one and a half degree look through a glass that magnifies things three times?
Answer : 1 1/2 degrees
Explanation : The magnifying glass cannot increase the magnitude of an angle.
Divide 45 into four parts such that when 2 is added to the first part, 2 is subtracted from the second part, 2 is multiplied by the third part and the fourth part is divided by two, all result in the same number. Answer: 8, 12, 5, 20
Explanation: a + b + c + d =45; a+2 = b-2 = 2c = d/2; a=b-4; c = (b-2)/2; d = 2(b-2); b-4 + b + (b-2)/2 + 2(b-2) = 45;
I drove 60 km at 30 kmph and then an additional 60 km at 50 kmph. Compute my average speed over my 120 km. Answer : 37 1/2
Explanation : Time reqd for the first 60 km = 120 min.; Time reqd for the second 60 km = 72 min.; Total time reqd = 192 min Avg speed = (60*120)/192 = 37 1/2
Questions 16 and 17 are based on the following :
Five executives of European Corporation hold a Conference in Rome
Mr. A converses in Spanish & Italian
Mr. B, a spaniard, knows English also
Mr. C knows English and belongs to Italy
Mr. D converses in French and Spanish
Mr. E , a native of Italy knows French
Which of the following can act as interpreter if Mr. C & Mr. D wish to converse
a) only Mr. A b) Only Mr. B c) Mr. A & Mr. B d) Any of the other three
Answer : d) Any of the other three.
Explanation : From the data given, we can infer the following. A knows Spanish, Italian
B knows Spanish, English, C knows Italian, English, D knows Spanish, French
E knows Italian, French. To act as an interpreter between C and D, a person has to know one of the combinations Italian&Spanish, Italian&French, English&Spanish, English&French . A, B, and E know atleast one of the combinations.
If a 6th executive is brought in, to be understood by maximum number of original five he should be fluent in
a) English & French b) Italian & Spanish c) English & French d) French & Italian
Answer : b) Italian & Spanish
Explanation : No of executives who know
i) English is 2 ii) Spanish is 3 iii) Italian is 3 iv) French is 2
Italian & Spanish are spoken by the maximum no of executives. So, if the 6th executive is fluent in Italian & Spanish, he can communicate with all the original five because everybody knows either Spanish or Italian.
What is the sum of the first 25 natural odd numbers? Answer : 625
Explanation : The sum of the first n natural odd nos is square(n).
1+3 = 4 = square(2) 1+3+5 = 9 = square(3)
The sum of any seven consecutive numbers is divisible by
a) 2 b) 7 c) 3 d) 11
Try the following
There are seventy clerks working in a company, of which 30 are females. Also, 30 clerks are married; 24 clerks are above 25 years of age; 19 married clerks are above 25 years, of which 7 are males; 12 males are above 25 years of age; and 15 males are married. How many bachelor girls are there and how many of these are above 25?
A man sailed off from the North Pole. After covering 2,000 miles in one direction he turned West, sailed 2,000 miles, turned North and sailed ahead another 2,000 miles till he met his friend. How far was he from the North Pole and in what direction?
Here is a series of comments on the ages of three persons J, R, S by themselves.
S : The difference between R,s age and mine is three years.
J : R is the youngest.
R : Either I am 24 years old or J 25 or S 26.
J : All are above 24 years of age.
S : I am the eldest if and only if R is not the youngest.
R : S is elder to me.
J : I am the eldest.
R : S is not 27 years old.
S : The sum of my age and J,s is two more than twice R,s age.
One of the three had been telling a lie throughout whereas others had spoken the truth. Determine the ages of S,J,R.
In a group of five people, what is the probability of finding two persons with the same month of birth?
A father and his son go out for a ,walk-and-run, every morning around a track formed by an equilateral triangle. The father,s walking speed is 2 mph and his running speed is 5 mph. The son,s walking and running speeds are twice that of his father. Both start together from one apex of the triangle, the son going clockwise and the father anti-clockwise. Initially the father runs and the son walks for a certain period of time. Thereafter, as soon as the father starts walking, the son starts running. Both complete the course in 45 minutes. For how long does the father run? Where do the two cross each other?
The Director of Medical Services was on his annual visit to the ENT Hospital. While going through the out patients, records he came across the following data for a particular day : " Ear consultations 45; Nose 50; Throat 70; Ear and Nose 30; Nose and Throat 20; Ear and Throat 30; Ear, Nose and Throat 10; Total patients 100." Then he came to the conclusion that the records were bogus. Was he right?
Amongst Ram, Sham and Gobind are a doctor, a lawyer and a police officer. They are married to Radha, Gita and Sita (not in order). Each of the wives have a profession. Gobind,s wife is an artist. Ram is not married to Gita. The lawyer,s wife is a teacher. Radha is married to the police officer. Sita is an expert cook. Who,s who?
What should come next?
1, 2, 4, 10, 16, 40, 64,
Questions 9-12 are based on the following :
Three adults – Roberto, Sarah and Vicky – will be traveling in a van with five children – Freddy, Hillary, Jonathan, Lupe, and Marta. The van has a driver’s seat and one passenger seat in the front, and two benches behind the front seats, one beach behind the other. Each bench has room for exactly three people. Everyone must sit in a seat or on a bench, and seating is subject to the following restrictions:
An adult must sit on each b Either Roberto or Sarah must sit in the driver’s Jonathan must sit immediately beside Marta.
Of the following, who can sit in the front passenger seat ?
(a) Jonathan (b) Lupe (c) Roberto (d) Sarah (e) Vicky
Which of the following groups of three can sit together on a bench?
(a) Freddy, Jonathan and Marta (b) Freddy, Jonathan and Vicky
(c) Freddy, Sarah and Vicky (d) Hillary, Lupe and Sarah
(e) Lupe, Marta and Roberto
Freddy sits immediately beside Vicky, which of the following cannot be true ?
Jonathan sits immediately beside Sarah
Lupe sits immediately beside Vicky
Hillary sits in the front passenger seat
Freddy sits on the same bench as Hillary
Hillary sits on the same bench as Roberto
If Sarah sits on a bench that is behind where Jonathan is sitting, which of the following must be true ?
Hillary sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of where Marta is sitting
Lupe sits in a seat or on a bench that is in front of where Freddy is sitting
Freddy sits on the same bench as Hillary
Lupe sits on the same bench as Sarah
Marta sits on the same bench as Vicky
Make six squares of the same size using twelve match-sticks. (Hint : You will need an adhesive to arrange the required figure)
A farmer has two rectangular fields. The larger field has twice the length and 4 times the width of the smaller field. If the smaller field has area K, then the are of the larger field is greater than the area of the smaller field by what amount?
(a) 6K (b) 8K (c) 12K (d) 7K
Nine equal circles are enclosed in a square whose area is 36sq units. Find the area of each circle.
There are 9 cards. Arrange them in a 3*3 matrix. Cards are of 4 colors. They are red, yellow, blue, green. Conditions for arrangement: one red card must be in first row or second row. 2 green cards should be in 3rd column. Yellow cards must be in the 3 corners only. Two blue cards must be in the 2nd row. At least one green card in each row.
Is z less than w? z and w are real numbers.
(I) z2 = 25
(II) w = 9
To answer the question,
a) Either I or II is sufficient
b) Both I and II are sufficient but neither of them is alone sufficient
c) I & II are sufficient
d) Both are not sufficient
A speaks truth 70% of the time; B speaks truth 80% of the time. What is the probability that both are contradicting each other?
In a family 7 children don,t eat spinach, 6 don,t eat carrot, 5 don,t eat beans, 4 don,t eat spinach & carrots, 3 don,t eat carrot & beans, 2 don,t eat beans & spinach. One doesn,t eat all 3. Find the no. of children.
Anna, Bena, Catherina and Diana are at their monthly business meeting. Their occupations are author, biologist, chemist and doctor, but not necessarily in that order. Diana just told the neighbour, who is a biologist that Catherina was on her way with doughnuts. Anna is sitting across from the doctor and next to the chemist. The doctor was thinking that Bena was a good name for parent,s to choose, but didn,t say anything. What is each person,s
General - Interview - 10 May 2005 Paper - 32
3i INFOTECH GD & INTERVIEW - 10 MAY 2005
I am aditya, today I had my icici GD & interview (10th may), i have some info, I would like to share with u,GD topic was
"can clean person exist in politcs "
"is attendance mandotary for college"
"is it necessary to make mandatory that people to work for few years in indiaafter completion of his /her education to reduce brain drain"
and 50 % were filtered out in GD
and interview was pretty easy ,
just simply "tell me about urself" "about family " no technical only one person or two were asked questions on project only for cse 2005 pasout were asked questions like "what is pointer""what is dbms" etc.those who have cleared the gd are probably selected (interview will be nominal)though the final results will be declared by may end
I am aditya, today I had my icici GD & interview (10th may), i have some info, I would like to share with u,GD topic was
"can clean person exist in politcs "
"is attendance mandotary for college"
"is it necessary to make mandatory that people to work for few years in indiaafter completion of his /her education to reduce brain drain"
and 50 % were filtered out in GD
and interview was pretty easy ,
just simply "tell me about urself" "about family " no technical only one person or two were asked questions on project only for cse 2005 pasout were asked questions like "what is pointer""what is dbms" etc.those who have cleared the gd are probably selected (interview will be nominal)though the final results will be declared by may end
General - other Paper - 29
ICICI Infotech Technical Questions
A 2MB PCM(pulse code modulation) has
a) 32 channels b) 30 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
c) 31 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
d) 32 channels out of which 30 voice channels, 1 signalling channel, & 1 Synchronizatio channel. Ans: (c)
2. Time taken for 1 satellite hop in voice communication is
a) 1/2 second b) 1 seconds c) 4 seconds d) 2 seconds Ans: (a)
A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg.
His gain is …%.
Max number of satellite hops allowed in voice communication is :
a) only one b) more than one c) two hops d) four hops Ans: (c)
Conditional results after execution of an instruction in a micro processor is stored ina) register b) accumulator c) flag register d) flag register part of PSW(Program Status Word) Ans: (d)
Frequency at which VOICE is sampled is
a) 4 Khz b) 8 Khz c) 16 Khz d) 64 Khz Ans: (a)
Line of Sight is
a) Straight Line b) Parabolic c) Tx & Rx should be visible to each other
d) none Ans: (c)
Purpose of PC(Program Counter) in a MicroProcessor is
a) To store address of TOS(Top Of Stack)
b) To store address of next instruction to be executed.
c) count the number of instructions.
d) to store base address of the stack. Ans: (b)
What action is taken when the processor under execution is interrupted by a non-maskable interrupt?
a) Processor serves the interrupt request after completing the execution of the current instruction.
b) Processor serves the interupt request after completing the current task.
c) Processor serves the interupt request immediately.
d) Processor serving the interrupt request depends upon the priority of the current task under execution. Ans: (a)
The status of the Kernel is
a) task b) process c) not defined. d) none of the above. Ans: (b)
To send a data packet using datagram , connection will be established
a) before data transmission.
b) connection is not established before data transmission.
c) no connection is required.
d) none of the above. Ans: (c)
Word allignment is
a) alligning the address to the next word boundary of the machine.
b) alligning to even boundary.
c) alligning to word boundary.
d) none of the above. Ans: (a)
When a ,C, function call is made, the order in which parameters passed to the function are pushed into the stack is
a) left to right b) right to left
c) bigger variables are moved first than the smaller variales.
d) smaller variables are moved first than the bigger ones.
e) none of the above. Ans: (b)
What is the type of signalling used between two exchanges?
a) inband b) common channel signaling c) any of the above
d) none of the above. Ans: (a)
Buffering is
a) the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device speeds
b) a method to reduce cross talks
c) storage of data within transmitting medium until the receiver is ready to receive.
d) a method to reduce routing overhead. Ans: (a)
16. Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is
a) allocated in RAM. b) allocated in ROM. c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers. Ans: (c)
Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is
a) allocated in RAM. b) allocated in ROM. c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers. Ans: (c)
A software that allows a personal computer to pretend as a computer terminal is
a) terminal adapter b) bulletin board c) modem d) terminal emulation
Ans: (d)
Find the output of the following program
int *p,*q;
p=(int *)1000;
q=(int *)2000;
printf("%d",(q-p)); Ans: 500
Which addressing mode is used in the following statements:
(a) MVI B,55 (b) MOV B,A (c) MOV M,A
Ans. (a) Immediate addressing mode.
(b) Register Addressing Mode
(c) Direct addressing mode
RS-232C standard is used in _____________. Ans. Serial I/O
Memory. Management in Operating Systems is done by
a) Memory Management Unit
b) Memory management software of the Operating System c) Kernel
Ans: (b)
What is done for a Push opertion?Ans: SP is decremented and then the value is stored.
Binary equivalent of 52 Ans. 110100
Hexadecimal equivalent of 3452 Ans. 72A
Explain Just In Time Concept ? Ans. Elimination of waste by purchasing manufacturing exactly when needed
A good way of unit testing s/w program is Ans. User test
OOT uses Ans. Encapsulated of detect methods
EDI useful in Ans. Electronic Transmission
MRPII different from MRP Ans. Modular version of man redundant initials
Hard disk time for R/W head to move to correct sector Ans. Latency Time
The percentage of times a page number bound in associate register is called
Ans. Bit ratio
Expand MODEM Ans. Modulator and Demodulator
RDBMS file system can be defined as Ans. Interrelated
Super Key is Ans. Primary key and Attribute
Windows 95 supports
(a) Multiuser (b) n tasks (c) Both (d) None Ans. (a)
In the command scanf, h is used for Ans. Short int
A process is defined as Ans. Program in execution
A thread is Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)
A thread is Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)
.How is memory management done in Win95
Ans. Through paging and segmentation
What is meant by polymorphism
Ans. Redfinition of a base class method in a derived class
What is the essential feature of inheritance
Ans. All properties of existing class are derived
What does the protocol FTP do
Ans. Transfer a file b/w stations with user authentification
In the transport layer ,TCP is what type of protocol Ans. Connection oriented
Why is a gateway used Ans. To connect incompatible networks
How is linked list implemented Ans. By referential structures
What method is used in Win95 in multitasking Ans. Non preemptive check
What is a semaphore Ans. A method synchronization of multiple processes
What is the precedence order from high to low ,of the symbols ( ) ++ / Ans.( ) , ++, /
Preorder of A*(B+C)/D-G Ans.*+ABC/-DG
What is the efficiency of merge sort Ans. O(n log n)
In which layer are routers used Ans.In network layer
Which of the following sorting algorithem has average sorting behavior --Bubble sort, merge sort, heap sort,
exchange sort Ans. Heap sort
In binary search tree which traversal is used for getting ascending order values--Inorder ,post order,preorder Ans.Inorder
What are device drivers used for Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware
What are device drivers used for Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware
What is make command in unix Ans. Used forcreation of more than one file
In unix .profile contains Ans. Start up program
In unix ,ls ,stores contents in Ans.inode block
Which of the following involves context switch,
(a) system call (b) priviliged instruction (c) floating poitnt exception
(d) all the above (e) none of the above Ans: (a)
61. In OST, terminal emulation is done in
(a) sessions layer (b) application layer (c) presentation layer
(d) transport layer Ans: (b)
For 1 MB memory, the number of address lines required,
(a)11 (b)16 (c)22 (d) 24 Ans. (b)
Semaphore is used for
(a) synchronization (b) dead-lock avoidance (c) box (d) none Ans. (a)
Which holds true for the following statement
class c: public A, public B
a) 2 member in class A, B should not have same name
b) 2 member in class A, C should not have same name
c) both
d) none Ans. (a)
Preproconia.. does not do which one of the following
(a) macro (b) conditional compliclation (c) in type checking (d) including load file
Ans. (c)
Piggy backing is a technique for
a) Flow control b) Sequence c) Acknowledgement d) retransmition Ans. (c)
Which is not a memory management scheme?
a) buddy system b) swapping c) monitors d) paging Ans : c
There was a circuit given using three nand gates with two inputs and one output.
Find the output.
a) OR b) AND c) XOR d) NOT Ans. (a)
Iintegrated check value(ICV) are used as: Ans. The client computes the ICV and then compares it with the senders value.
When applets are downloaded from web sites , a byte verifier performs _________?
Ans. Status check
An IP/IPX packet received by a computer using... having IP/IPX both how the packet Is handled. Ans. Read the, field in the packet header with to send IP or IPX protocol.
The UNIX shell ....
a) does not come with the rest of the system
b) forms the interface between the user and the kernal
c) does not give any scope for programming
d) deos not allow calling one program from with in another
e) all of the above Ans. (b)
In UNIX a files i-node ......?
Ans. Is a data structure that defines all specifications of a file like the file size,
number of lines to a file, permissions etc.
The very first process created by the kernal that runs till the kernal process is halts is
a) init b) getty c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these Ans. (a)
In the process table entry for the kernel process, the process id value is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 255 (e) it does not have a process table entry Ans. (a)
Which of the following API is used to hide a window
a) ShowWindow b) EnableWindow c) MoveWindowd) SetWindowPlacement
e) None of the above Ans. (a)
Which function is the entry point for a DLL in MS Windows 3.1
a) Main b) Winmain c) Dllmain d) Libmain e) None Ans. (b)
The standard source for standard input, standard output and standard error is
a) the terminal b) /dev/null
c) /usr/you/input, /usr/you/output/, /usr/you/error respectively
d) None Ans. (a)
The redirection operators > and >>
a) do the same function b) differ : > overwrites, while >> appends
c) differ : > is used for input while >> is used for output
d) differ : > write to any file while >> write only to standard output
e) None of these Ans. (b)
The command grep first second third /usr/you/myfile
a) prints lines containing the words first, second or third from the file /usr/you/myfile
b) searches for lines containing the pattern first in the files
second, third, and /usr/you/myfile and prints them
c) searches the files /usr/you/myfiel and third for lines containing the words first or second and prints them
d) replaces the word first with the word second in the files third and /usr/you/myfile
e) None of the above
Ans. (b)
You are creating a Index on EMPNO column in the EMPLOYEE table. Which statement will you use?
a) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee, empno;
b) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx FOR employee, empno;
c) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee(empno);
d) CREATE emp_empno_idx INdEX ON employee(empno); Ans. c
Which program construct must return a value?
a) Package b) Function c) Anonymous block d) Stored Procedure
e) Application Procedure Ans. b
Which Statement would you use to remove the EMPLOYEE_Id_PK PRIMARY KEY constraint and all depending constraints fromthe EMPLOYEE table?
a) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
b) ALTER TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
c) MOdIFY TABLE employee dROP CONSTRAINT employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
d) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
e) MOdIFY TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
Ans. a
Which three commands cause a transaction to end? (Chosse three)
a) ALTER b) GRANT c) DELETE d) INSERT e) UPdATE
f) ROLLBACK Ans. a ,b ,f
Under which circumstance should you create an index on a table?
a) The table is small.
b) The table is updated frequently.
c) A columns values are static and contain a narrow range of values
d) Two columns are consistently used in the WHERE clause join condition of SELECT
statements.
Ans.d
What was the first name given to Java Programming Language.
a) Oak – Java b) Small Talk c) Oak d) None Ans.a
A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds.
In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly
(a) 29% (b) 15% (c) 10% (d) 45% Ans. (a)
Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?
(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time Ans. (b)
A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100.
It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z.
In both processes a charged particle is emitted.
Which of the following statements would be true?
(a) y has an atomic number of 102 (b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100 (d) z has an atomic number of 101
Ans. (b)
If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals
then a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP (b) GP (c) HP (d) None of these Ans. (c)
A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports it to be a 6.
What is the probability of it being a 6?
(a) 3/8 (b) 5/8 (c) ¾ (d) None of the above Ans. (a)
If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a
(a) Right angle triangle (b) Equilateral triangle (c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these Ans. (a)
Image of point (3,8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is
(a) (-1,-4) (b) (-1,4) (c) (2,-4) (d) (-2,-4) Ans. (a)
The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number (b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above Ans. (c)
The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation (b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface Ans. (c
Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference
(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or
the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source Ans. (c)
When X-Ray photons collide with electrons
(a) They slow down (b) Their mass increases (c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases Ans. (c)
An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit (b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits Ans. (b)
An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit (b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits Ans. (b)
How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 4 Ans. (d)
A 2MB PCM(pulse code modulation) has
a) 32 channels b) 30 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
c) 31 voice channels & 1 signalling channel.
d) 32 channels out of which 30 voice channels, 1 signalling channel, & 1 Synchronizatio channel. Ans: (c)
2. Time taken for 1 satellite hop in voice communication is
a) 1/2 second b) 1 seconds c) 4 seconds d) 2 seconds Ans: (a)
A dishonest shopkeeper professes to sell pulses at the cost price, but he uses a false weight of 950gm. for a kg.
His gain is …%.
Max number of satellite hops allowed in voice communication is :
a) only one b) more than one c) two hops d) four hops Ans: (c)
Conditional results after execution of an instruction in a micro processor is stored ina) register b) accumulator c) flag register d) flag register part of PSW(Program Status Word) Ans: (d)
Frequency at which VOICE is sampled is
a) 4 Khz b) 8 Khz c) 16 Khz d) 64 Khz Ans: (a)
Line of Sight is
a) Straight Line b) Parabolic c) Tx & Rx should be visible to each other
d) none Ans: (c)
Purpose of PC(Program Counter) in a MicroProcessor is
a) To store address of TOS(Top Of Stack)
b) To store address of next instruction to be executed.
c) count the number of instructions.
d) to store base address of the stack. Ans: (b)
What action is taken when the processor under execution is interrupted by a non-maskable interrupt?
a) Processor serves the interrupt request after completing the execution of the current instruction.
b) Processor serves the interupt request after completing the current task.
c) Processor serves the interupt request immediately.
d) Processor serving the interrupt request depends upon the priority of the current task under execution. Ans: (a)
The status of the Kernel is
a) task b) process c) not defined. d) none of the above. Ans: (b)
To send a data packet using datagram , connection will be established
a) before data transmission.
b) connection is not established before data transmission.
c) no connection is required.
d) none of the above. Ans: (c)
Word allignment is
a) alligning the address to the next word boundary of the machine.
b) alligning to even boundary.
c) alligning to word boundary.
d) none of the above. Ans: (a)
When a ,C, function call is made, the order in which parameters passed to the function are pushed into the stack is
a) left to right b) right to left
c) bigger variables are moved first than the smaller variales.
d) smaller variables are moved first than the bigger ones.
e) none of the above. Ans: (b)
What is the type of signalling used between two exchanges?
a) inband b) common channel signaling c) any of the above
d) none of the above. Ans: (a)
Buffering is
a) the process of temporarily storing the data to allow for small variation in device speeds
b) a method to reduce cross talks
c) storage of data within transmitting medium until the receiver is ready to receive.
d) a method to reduce routing overhead. Ans: (a)
16. Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is
a) allocated in RAM. b) allocated in ROM. c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers. Ans: (c)
Memory allocation of variables declared in a program is
a) allocated in RAM. b) allocated in ROM. c) allocated on stack.
d) assigned to registers. Ans: (c)
A software that allows a personal computer to pretend as a computer terminal is
a) terminal adapter b) bulletin board c) modem d) terminal emulation
Ans: (d)
Find the output of the following program
int *p,*q;
p=(int *)1000;
q=(int *)2000;
printf("%d",(q-p)); Ans: 500
Which addressing mode is used in the following statements:
(a) MVI B,55 (b) MOV B,A (c) MOV M,A
Ans. (a) Immediate addressing mode.
(b) Register Addressing Mode
(c) Direct addressing mode
RS-232C standard is used in _____________. Ans. Serial I/O
Memory. Management in Operating Systems is done by
a) Memory Management Unit
b) Memory management software of the Operating System c) Kernel
Ans: (b)
What is done for a Push opertion?Ans: SP is decremented and then the value is stored.
Binary equivalent of 52 Ans. 110100
Hexadecimal equivalent of 3452 Ans. 72A
Explain Just In Time Concept ? Ans. Elimination of waste by purchasing manufacturing exactly when needed
A good way of unit testing s/w program is Ans. User test
OOT uses Ans. Encapsulated of detect methods
EDI useful in Ans. Electronic Transmission
MRPII different from MRP Ans. Modular version of man redundant initials
Hard disk time for R/W head to move to correct sector Ans. Latency Time
The percentage of times a page number bound in associate register is called
Ans. Bit ratio
Expand MODEM Ans. Modulator and Demodulator
RDBMS file system can be defined as Ans. Interrelated
Super Key is Ans. Primary key and Attribute
Windows 95 supports
(a) Multiuser (b) n tasks (c) Both (d) None Ans. (a)
In the command scanf, h is used for Ans. Short int
A process is defined as Ans. Program in execution
A thread is Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)
A thread is Ans. Detachable unit of executable code)
.How is memory management done in Win95
Ans. Through paging and segmentation
What is meant by polymorphism
Ans. Redfinition of a base class method in a derived class
What is the essential feature of inheritance
Ans. All properties of existing class are derived
What does the protocol FTP do
Ans. Transfer a file b/w stations with user authentification
In the transport layer ,TCP is what type of protocol Ans. Connection oriented
Why is a gateway used Ans. To connect incompatible networks
How is linked list implemented Ans. By referential structures
What method is used in Win95 in multitasking Ans. Non preemptive check
What is a semaphore Ans. A method synchronization of multiple processes
What is the precedence order from high to low ,of the symbols ( ) ++ / Ans.( ) , ++, /
Preorder of A*(B+C)/D-G Ans.*+ABC/-DG
What is the efficiency of merge sort Ans. O(n log n)
In which layer are routers used Ans.In network layer
Which of the following sorting algorithem has average sorting behavior --Bubble sort, merge sort, heap sort,
exchange sort Ans. Heap sort
In binary search tree which traversal is used for getting ascending order values--Inorder ,post order,preorder Ans.Inorder
What are device drivers used for Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware
What are device drivers used for Ans.To provide software for enabling the hardware
What is make command in unix Ans. Used forcreation of more than one file
In unix .profile contains Ans. Start up program
In unix ,ls ,stores contents in Ans.inode block
Which of the following involves context switch,
(a) system call (b) priviliged instruction (c) floating poitnt exception
(d) all the above (e) none of the above Ans: (a)
61. In OST, terminal emulation is done in
(a) sessions layer (b) application layer (c) presentation layer
(d) transport layer Ans: (b)
For 1 MB memory, the number of address lines required,
(a)11 (b)16 (c)22 (d) 24 Ans. (b)
Semaphore is used for
(a) synchronization (b) dead-lock avoidance (c) box (d) none Ans. (a)
Which holds true for the following statement
class c: public A, public B
a) 2 member in class A, B should not have same name
b) 2 member in class A, C should not have same name
c) both
d) none Ans. (a)
Preproconia.. does not do which one of the following
(a) macro (b) conditional compliclation (c) in type checking (d) including load file
Ans. (c)
Piggy backing is a technique for
a) Flow control b) Sequence c) Acknowledgement d) retransmition Ans. (c)
Which is not a memory management scheme?
a) buddy system b) swapping c) monitors d) paging Ans : c
There was a circuit given using three nand gates with two inputs and one output.
Find the output.
a) OR b) AND c) XOR d) NOT Ans. (a)
Iintegrated check value(ICV) are used as: Ans. The client computes the ICV and then compares it with the senders value.
When applets are downloaded from web sites , a byte verifier performs _________?
Ans. Status check
An IP/IPX packet received by a computer using... having IP/IPX both how the packet Is handled. Ans. Read the, field in the packet header with to send IP or IPX protocol.
The UNIX shell ....
a) does not come with the rest of the system
b) forms the interface between the user and the kernal
c) does not give any scope for programming
d) deos not allow calling one program from with in another
e) all of the above Ans. (b)
In UNIX a files i-node ......?
Ans. Is a data structure that defines all specifications of a file like the file size,
number of lines to a file, permissions etc.
The very first process created by the kernal that runs till the kernal process is halts is
a) init b) getty c) both (a) and (b) d) none of these Ans. (a)
In the process table entry for the kernel process, the process id value is
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 255 (e) it does not have a process table entry Ans. (a)
Which of the following API is used to hide a window
a) ShowWindow b) EnableWindow c) MoveWindowd) SetWindowPlacement
e) None of the above Ans. (a)
Which function is the entry point for a DLL in MS Windows 3.1
a) Main b) Winmain c) Dllmain d) Libmain e) None Ans. (b)
The standard source for standard input, standard output and standard error is
a) the terminal b) /dev/null
c) /usr/you/input, /usr/you/output/, /usr/you/error respectively
d) None Ans. (a)
The redirection operators > and >>
a) do the same function b) differ : > overwrites, while >> appends
c) differ : > is used for input while >> is used for output
d) differ : > write to any file while >> write only to standard output
e) None of these Ans. (b)
The command grep first second third /usr/you/myfile
a) prints lines containing the words first, second or third from the file /usr/you/myfile
b) searches for lines containing the pattern first in the files
second, third, and /usr/you/myfile and prints them
c) searches the files /usr/you/myfiel and third for lines containing the words first or second and prints them
d) replaces the word first with the word second in the files third and /usr/you/myfile
e) None of the above
Ans. (b)
You are creating a Index on EMPNO column in the EMPLOYEE table. Which statement will you use?
a) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee, empno;
b) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx FOR employee, empno;
c) CREATE INdEX emp_empno_idx ON employee(empno);
d) CREATE emp_empno_idx INdEX ON employee(empno); Ans. c
Which program construct must return a value?
a) Package b) Function c) Anonymous block d) Stored Procedure
e) Application Procedure Ans. b
Which Statement would you use to remove the EMPLOYEE_Id_PK PRIMARY KEY constraint and all depending constraints fromthe EMPLOYEE table?
a) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
b) ALTER TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY CASCAdE;
c) MOdIFY TABLE employee dROP CONSTRAINT employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
d) ALTER TABLE employee dROP PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
e) MOdIFY TABLE employee dELETE PRIMARY KEY employee_id_pk CASCAdE;
Ans. a
Which three commands cause a transaction to end? (Chosse three)
a) ALTER b) GRANT c) DELETE d) INSERT e) UPdATE
f) ROLLBACK Ans. a ,b ,f
Under which circumstance should you create an index on a table?
a) The table is small.
b) The table is updated frequently.
c) A columns values are static and contain a narrow range of values
d) Two columns are consistently used in the WHERE clause join condition of SELECT
statements.
Ans.d
What was the first name given to Java Programming Language.
a) Oak – Java b) Small Talk c) Oak d) None Ans.a
A certain radioactive element A, has a half life = t seconds.
In (t/2) seconds the fraction of the initial quantity of the element so far decayed is nearly
(a) 29% (b) 15% (c) 10% (d) 45% Ans. (a)
Which of the following plots would be a straight line ?
(a) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of time
(b) Logarithm of decay rate against logarithm of number of decaying nuclei
(c) Decay rate against time
(d) Number of decaying nuclei against time Ans. (b)
A radioactive element x has an atomic number of 100.
It decays directly into an element y which decays directly into element z.
In both processes a charged particle is emitted.
Which of the following statements would be true?
(a) y has an atomic number of 102 (b) y has an atomic number of 101
(c) z has an atomic number of 100 (d) z has an atomic number of 101
Ans. (b)
If the sum of the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c=0 is equal to the sum of the squares of their reciprocals
then a/c, b/a, c/b are in
(a) AP (b) GP (c) HP (d) None of these Ans. (c)
A man speaks the truth 3 out of 4 times. He throws a die and reports it to be a 6.
What is the probability of it being a 6?
(a) 3/8 (b) 5/8 (c) ¾ (d) None of the above Ans. (a)
If cos2A + cos2B + cos2C = 1 then ABC is a
(a) Right angle triangle (b) Equilateral triangle (c) All the angles are acute
(d) None of these Ans. (a)
Image of point (3,8) in the line x + 3y = 7 is
(a) (-1,-4) (b) (-1,4) (c) (2,-4) (d) (-2,-4) Ans. (a)
The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number (b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) None of the above Ans. (c)
The maximum KE of the photoelectron emitted from a surface is dependent on
(a) The intensity of incident radiation (b) The potential of the collector electrode
(c) The frequency of incident radiation
(d) The angle of incidence of radiation of the surface Ans. (c
Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference
(a) The two interfering waves must be propagated in almost the same direction or
the two interfering waves must intersect at a very small angle
(b) The waves must have the same time period and wavelength
(c) Amplitude of the two waves should be the same
(d) The interfering beams of light must originate from the same source Ans. (c)
When X-Ray photons collide with electrons
(a) They slow down (b) Their mass increases (c) Their wave length increases
(d) Their energy decreases Ans. (c)
An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit (b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits Ans. (b)
An electron emits energy
(a) Because its in orbit (b) When it jumps from one energy level to another
(c) Electrons are attracted towards the nucleus
(d) The electrostatic force is insufficient to hold the electrons in orbits Ans. (b)
How many bonds are present in CO2 molecule?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) 4 Ans. (d)
General - other Paper - 30
Recruitment of Software Trainees
INFORMATION HANDOUT
INTRODUCTION
This booklet contains details pertaining to various aspects of the examination you are going to undertake and important instructions about the related matters. A computerised machine will do the assessment of the answersheet; hence you should carefully read instructions regarding handling of the answersheet and the method of marking answers. You are advised to study this booklet carefully as it will help you in preparing yourself for the examination.
Before appearing for the written examination, you should strictly ensure yourself that you fulfill the eligibility criteria stipulated by the Organisation in all respects. The Organisation will reject at any stage of selection, any candidate who does not satisfy the eligibility criteria.
Please note that this is a competitive examination; mere passing is not adequate. You have to obtain a high rank in the order of merit to be considered for interview. You should therefore put in your best effort in the examination.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Particulars to be noted: Please note carefully your Roll Number, Date, Time and Venue for the examination given in the call-letter.
2. Punctuality in Attendance: Candidates should be present at the examination hall at the time given in the Call-letter. Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the Examination Hall.
3. Call-letter to be signed and surrendered: The call letter should be brought when you arrive at the venue for the examination alongwith your recent passport size photograph duly pasted on it. You will be required to sign in the examination hall on your call letter in the space provided for the candidate,s signature in the presence of the invigilator. (Do not sign in this space on the call letter unless the invigilator instructs you to do so.) The call letter should be surrendered to the invigilator at the examination venue.
4. Specimen answersheet and how to fill bio-data information on it: You will get an answersheet. The last sheet of this booklet is a sample of Answersheet. Fill in your Bio-data information on this answersheet for YOUR practice and BRING IT with you to the examination hall.
How to fill in the bio-data information on the answersheet is explained and shown hereafter on a sample of Answersheet. You will get answersheets in the examination hall on which you will have to copy your bio-data Information already filled-in by you.
5. Compliance with instructions: You should scrupulously follow the instructions given by test administrators and the invigilators at the examination venue at all stages of the examination for which you have been called. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and may also be asked to leave the examination hall.
6. Use of Books, Notes & Calculators: No calculator (separate or with watch), books, slide rulers, note books or written notes will be allowed inside the examination hall.
7. Copying or receiving/giving assistance not allowed: Any candidate who is found either copying or receiving or giving assistance during the examination will not be considered for assessment. The Organisation may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
8. Use of HB Pencil and Ball Pen: You should bring with you two commonly available HB Pencils, a Pencil Sharpener, an Eraser and a Ball Point Pen. Two pencils are advised to avoid mending a pencil during the examination as you may lose time. Using HB Pencil only also should mark all the answers on Side 2.
9. Handling Answersheet: Please handle your answersheet carefully. Keep it dust free. If it is mutilated, torn, folded, wrinkled, rolled or dusty, it may not be valued. Similarly, if you do not write your Roll Number and Test Form No. in Box Nos.14 and 17 respectively, your answersheet will NOT be assessed. Answersheets and question papers will be supplied by the Organisation. After the test is over, you should hand over the same to the invigilator before leaving the room. No candidate will be permitted to take exercise material outside the examination venue.
10. One Single Answer sheet: For all the objective tests there will be a single answer sheet.
11. Write Roll No. On the Test Booklet: You should write your Roll No. in the space provided on the cover page.
HOW TO SHOW YOUR ANSWERS:
Each question is followed by answers, which are numbered 1,2,3,4 and 5. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB Pencil, blacken the oval bearing the correct answer against the serial number of the question. (Refer to Side 2 of the Specimen Answersheet). Please note that the oval should be dark enough and should be filled in completely. For example, if the answer to Question Number 2, is answer number 5, it is shown as follows:
Q.2. 1 2 3 4 5
HOW TO CHANGE YOUR ANSWER:
If you wish to change your answer, ERASE COMPLETELY the already darkened oval by using good quality eraser and then blacken the new oval bearing your revised answer number. While changing the answer, erasing the earlier answer completely is extremely essential. If it is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased oval as shown below and the question will be read as having two answers and will be ignored for giving any credit.
Q.2. 1 2 3 4 5
(Smudge left in Oval No.3 due to bad eraser, and the fresh answer in Oval No.4 will be read as two answers 3 and 4 and therefore no credit will be given even if the answer No.4 happens to be the correct answer).
How to fill up Bio-data Information
Important:
1. The information is to be filled in by you in box 1-11, 13, 14,15 & 17 on Side 1, and in box 29 on Side 2 of the answervsheet.
2. You have to fill in information in boxes 1-11 by using ballpoint pen.
3. Information in boxes 13, 14, 15 and 17 on Side 1 and 29 on Side 2 are to be filled in by using HB pencil only.
4. Boxes, which have been crossed out in the specimen answersheet, are to be left blank. Do not write anything there nor darken the ovals in these boxes. Now please refer to Side 1 and 2 of the Specimen Answersheet while reading the following description:
Side 1
Full Name of the Candidate (Box No.1): You have to write in capitals your full name in English as given in the call-letter in the space provided using ballpoint pen.
Other information (Box Nos.2 to 7): You will find that the information asked for in the boxes from 2 to 7 can be filled in easily. Fill in the information by using ballpoint pen.
Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in boxes 8-10): Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in Boxes 8-10) are printed on the test booklet. You have to copy this number using ballpoint pen from the test booklet you will receive at the time of examination.
Signature of Candidates & Invigilator (Box No.11 & 12): Here both have to put his/her signatures.
Candidate,s Name (Box No.13): There is a row of 10 boxes for writing the name. Just below each box you will find a column of 26 ovals each containing a letter of the alphabet. The top oval in each contains a letter ,A, whereas the last oval bears ,Z,. See how the candidate has written her name in capitals by entering one letter in each box using HB pencil, and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. Please note that the candidate has left one box and respective column of ovals blank between two parts of her name. If your name contains more letters write only the first letters, which you can accommodate in the Boxes provided.
Candidate,s Roll Number (Box No.14): You will be assigned 8-digit roll number by the organization. There is a row of 8 boxes provided to write the roll number. Just below each box there are 10 ovals numbered from 1 to 9 and 0. See how the candidate has written her roll number in the boxes, entering one digit in each box by using HB pencil and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. You have to write your roll number on the test booklet also in the space provided for it.
Post Code (Box No.15): Please enter and darken your Educational Category Code in this Box. The Educational Category Codes are given below:
Category Code
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
E 5
Also write your Educational Category in Box No.6 with Ballpoint pen on the answersheet.
Test Form No. (Box No.17): You will have to write the test form number (3 digits) in Box No.17. Write each of the digits in the boxes provided and blacken the appropriate ovals by HB pencil.
Side 2:
Roll Number (Box No.29): Write your Roll Number by HB pencil in this box at the left hand bottom corner of Side 2 of the answersheet.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION
The written examination will comprise following objective type tests. The details of these tests are given below.
SR.NO.
NAME OF TEST
NO.OF QS.
MAX.MARKS
TIME
1.
Test of English Language
50
50
Composite time of 90 minutes for all the tests together
2.
Test of Quantitative Aptitude
50
50
3.
Test of Reasoning
50
50
All the tests will be Objective type with five alternative choices out of which one will be the correct answer. All these three tests would be in a composite test booklet. There will be a separate answersheet for indicating your answers. All these 150 questions would be printed serially from Q.No.1 to Q.No.150. You may attempt the questions in any order you like in a given time for the set of questions. However, in your own interest you are advised not to spend too much time on any one test. To qualify in the written examination, it is necessary to pass in each one of the objective tests separately. The qualifying criteria will be decided by the Organisation.
All the objective tests will be printed in English only.
Please note that the types of questions for all the tests are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual examination you will find questions of higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.
Some sample questions are given below:
Test I : Test of English Language
Q.1-2.Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q1. Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or
(1) (2)
communal problems / in varying degrees. No error
(3) (4) (5)
Q2. The regaining of freedom / as we all know /
(1) (2)
has given rise for / many dormant issues and conflicts in our
(3) (4)
society No error
(5)
Q.3-4. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would
complete the sentence correctly and meaningfully.
Q.3. Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind
of ________ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger
(5) resistance
Q.4. He wants me to look _______ his garden during his absence.
(1) at (2) over (3) after (4) into (5) for
Test II : Test of Quantitative Aptitude
Q.5. If 3 workers can collect 48 kgs cotton in 4 days, how much kgs cotton can 9 workers collect in 2 days ?
(1) 216 (2) 32 (3) 108 (4) 72 (5) None of these
Q.6. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The xpenditure on transport was Rs.480. He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs.60. What should be the selling price of each ream if he wants a profit of 20% ?
(1) Rs.126 (2) Rs.115.50 (3) Rs.105 (4) Rs.120 (5) None of these
Q.7. The interest on a certain deposit at 9% per annum is Rs.405 in one year. How much will be the additional interest in one year on the same deposit at 10% per annum ?
(1) Rs.40.50 (2) Rs.450 (3) Rs.855 (4) Rs.45
(5) None of these
Q.8. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fifth of its length. If the area of the hall is 135 sq.m. what is the difference between the length and breadth of the hall in metres ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 15 (5) None of these
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.9-11. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that follow :
Percentage of Employees giving Different Ranks
Attribute I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Socialibility 5 14 23 35 10 13
Q.9. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank?
(1) Perseverance(2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the highest percentage. So your answer is “Seniority”, which is answer No.2.
Q.10. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for intelligence. You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700 is 70. So your answer should be 4.
Q.11. Which attribute is considered the least important for Promotion?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence(3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency(5) Sociability
Referring to the percentage for VI rank, you find that intelligence is the attribute which receives the highest percentage. In other words, a majority of people considers it as the least important and gives it the last rank. Therefore your answer is 2.
Test III : Test of Reasoning
Q.12. If (1) ‘A * B’ means “A is the mother of B” and (II) ‘A x B’ means “A is the husband of B”, which of the following shows ‘P is the father of Q’ ?
(1) Q * M x P (2) P * Q (3) Q * P (4) P x M * Q
(5)None of these
Q.13. Ashok is standing at P. He walks 10 metres towards the South; then he walks 20 metres towards the West; then he walks 10 metres towards the South; then he walks 20 metres towards the East; then he walks 5 metres towards the North and reaches Q. What is the straight distance between P and Q in metres ?
(1) Zero (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 15 (5) None of these
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
1. You are advised to bring with you the following things:
(i) Call-letter with your identification document.
(ii) Completely filled in bio-data information on the sample answersheet provided at the end of this booklet.
(iii) Two HB pencils, a pencil sharpener and a good quality eraser.
(iv) One ballpoint pen.
2. While filling in the bio-data information on the Specimen Answersheet, please fill in YOUR bio-data information. The completed bio-data information on the sample answersheet will help you to fill the same information on the answersheet that will be given to you in the examination hall.
3. Kindly note that there will be penalty for wrong answers
INFORMATION HANDOUT
INTRODUCTION
This booklet contains details pertaining to various aspects of the examination you are going to undertake and important instructions about the related matters. A computerised machine will do the assessment of the answersheet; hence you should carefully read instructions regarding handling of the answersheet and the method of marking answers. You are advised to study this booklet carefully as it will help you in preparing yourself for the examination.
Before appearing for the written examination, you should strictly ensure yourself that you fulfill the eligibility criteria stipulated by the Organisation in all respects. The Organisation will reject at any stage of selection, any candidate who does not satisfy the eligibility criteria.
Please note that this is a competitive examination; mere passing is not adequate. You have to obtain a high rank in the order of merit to be considered for interview. You should therefore put in your best effort in the examination.
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
1. Particulars to be noted: Please note carefully your Roll Number, Date, Time and Venue for the examination given in the call-letter.
2. Punctuality in Attendance: Candidates should be present at the examination hall at the time given in the Call-letter. Candidates arriving late will not be permitted to enter the Examination Hall.
3. Call-letter to be signed and surrendered: The call letter should be brought when you arrive at the venue for the examination alongwith your recent passport size photograph duly pasted on it. You will be required to sign in the examination hall on your call letter in the space provided for the candidate,s signature in the presence of the invigilator. (Do not sign in this space on the call letter unless the invigilator instructs you to do so.) The call letter should be surrendered to the invigilator at the examination venue.
4. Specimen answersheet and how to fill bio-data information on it: You will get an answersheet. The last sheet of this booklet is a sample of Answersheet. Fill in your Bio-data information on this answersheet for YOUR practice and BRING IT with you to the examination hall.
How to fill in the bio-data information on the answersheet is explained and shown hereafter on a sample of Answersheet. You will get answersheets in the examination hall on which you will have to copy your bio-data Information already filled-in by you.
5. Compliance with instructions: You should scrupulously follow the instructions given by test administrators and the invigilators at the examination venue at all stages of the examination for which you have been called. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and may also be asked to leave the examination hall.
6. Use of Books, Notes & Calculators: No calculator (separate or with watch), books, slide rulers, note books or written notes will be allowed inside the examination hall.
7. Copying or receiving/giving assistance not allowed: Any candidate who is found either copying or receiving or giving assistance during the examination will not be considered for assessment. The Organisation may take further action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
8. Use of HB Pencil and Ball Pen: You should bring with you two commonly available HB Pencils, a Pencil Sharpener, an Eraser and a Ball Point Pen. Two pencils are advised to avoid mending a pencil during the examination as you may lose time. Using HB Pencil only also should mark all the answers on Side 2.
9. Handling Answersheet: Please handle your answersheet carefully. Keep it dust free. If it is mutilated, torn, folded, wrinkled, rolled or dusty, it may not be valued. Similarly, if you do not write your Roll Number and Test Form No. in Box Nos.14 and 17 respectively, your answersheet will NOT be assessed. Answersheets and question papers will be supplied by the Organisation. After the test is over, you should hand over the same to the invigilator before leaving the room. No candidate will be permitted to take exercise material outside the examination venue.
10. One Single Answer sheet: For all the objective tests there will be a single answer sheet.
11. Write Roll No. On the Test Booklet: You should write your Roll No. in the space provided on the cover page.
HOW TO SHOW YOUR ANSWERS:
Each question is followed by answers, which are numbered 1,2,3,4 and 5. Select the most appropriate answer. Then by using HB Pencil, blacken the oval bearing the correct answer against the serial number of the question. (Refer to Side 2 of the Specimen Answersheet). Please note that the oval should be dark enough and should be filled in completely. For example, if the answer to Question Number 2, is answer number 5, it is shown as follows:
Q.2. 1 2 3 4 5
HOW TO CHANGE YOUR ANSWER:
If you wish to change your answer, ERASE COMPLETELY the already darkened oval by using good quality eraser and then blacken the new oval bearing your revised answer number. While changing the answer, erasing the earlier answer completely is extremely essential. If it is not erased completely, smudges will be left on the erased oval as shown below and the question will be read as having two answers and will be ignored for giving any credit.
Q.2. 1 2 3 4 5
(Smudge left in Oval No.3 due to bad eraser, and the fresh answer in Oval No.4 will be read as two answers 3 and 4 and therefore no credit will be given even if the answer No.4 happens to be the correct answer).
How to fill up Bio-data Information
Important:
1. The information is to be filled in by you in box 1-11, 13, 14,15 & 17 on Side 1, and in box 29 on Side 2 of the answervsheet.
2. You have to fill in information in boxes 1-11 by using ballpoint pen.
3. Information in boxes 13, 14, 15 and 17 on Side 1 and 29 on Side 2 are to be filled in by using HB pencil only.
4. Boxes, which have been crossed out in the specimen answersheet, are to be left blank. Do not write anything there nor darken the ovals in these boxes. Now please refer to Side 1 and 2 of the Specimen Answersheet while reading the following description:
Side 1
Full Name of the Candidate (Box No.1): You have to write in capitals your full name in English as given in the call-letter in the space provided using ballpoint pen.
Other information (Box Nos.2 to 7): You will find that the information asked for in the boxes from 2 to 7 can be filled in easily. Fill in the information by using ballpoint pen.
Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in boxes 8-10): Test Booklet Serial Number, Test Battery Number and Test Form Number (Information required in Boxes 8-10) are printed on the test booklet. You have to copy this number using ballpoint pen from the test booklet you will receive at the time of examination.
Signature of Candidates & Invigilator (Box No.11 & 12): Here both have to put his/her signatures.
Candidate,s Name (Box No.13): There is a row of 10 boxes for writing the name. Just below each box you will find a column of 26 ovals each containing a letter of the alphabet. The top oval in each contains a letter ,A, whereas the last oval bears ,Z,. See how the candidate has written her name in capitals by entering one letter in each box using HB pencil, and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. Please note that the candidate has left one box and respective column of ovals blank between two parts of her name. If your name contains more letters write only the first letters, which you can accommodate in the Boxes provided.
Candidate,s Roll Number (Box No.14): You will be assigned 8-digit roll number by the organization. There is a row of 8 boxes provided to write the roll number. Just below each box there are 10 ovals numbered from 1 to 9 and 0. See how the candidate has written her roll number in the boxes, entering one digit in each box by using HB pencil and has blackened the appropriate oval under each box. You have to write your roll number on the test booklet also in the space provided for it.
Post Code (Box No.15): Please enter and darken your Educational Category Code in this Box. The Educational Category Codes are given below:
Category Code
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
E 5
Also write your Educational Category in Box No.6 with Ballpoint pen on the answersheet.
Test Form No. (Box No.17): You will have to write the test form number (3 digits) in Box No.17. Write each of the digits in the boxes provided and blacken the appropriate ovals by HB pencil.
Side 2:
Roll Number (Box No.29): Write your Roll Number by HB pencil in this box at the left hand bottom corner of Side 2 of the answersheet.
WRITTEN EXAMINATION
The written examination will comprise following objective type tests. The details of these tests are given below.
SR.NO.
NAME OF TEST
NO.OF QS.
MAX.MARKS
TIME
1.
Test of English Language
50
50
Composite time of 90 minutes for all the tests together
2.
Test of Quantitative Aptitude
50
50
3.
Test of Reasoning
50
50
All the tests will be Objective type with five alternative choices out of which one will be the correct answer. All these three tests would be in a composite test booklet. There will be a separate answersheet for indicating your answers. All these 150 questions would be printed serially from Q.No.1 to Q.No.150. You may attempt the questions in any order you like in a given time for the set of questions. However, in your own interest you are advised not to spend too much time on any one test. To qualify in the written examination, it is necessary to pass in each one of the objective tests separately. The qualifying criteria will be decided by the Organisation.
All the objective tests will be printed in English only.
Please note that the types of questions for all the tests are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual examination you will find questions of higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.
Some sample questions are given below:
Test I : Test of English Language
Q.1-2.Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Q1. Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or
(1) (2)
communal problems / in varying degrees. No error
(3) (4) (5)
Q2. The regaining of freedom / as we all know /
(1) (2)
has given rise for / many dormant issues and conflicts in our
(3) (4)
society No error
(5)
Q.3-4. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would
complete the sentence correctly and meaningfully.
Q.3. Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind
of ________ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger
(5) resistance
Q.4. He wants me to look _______ his garden during his absence.
(1) at (2) over (3) after (4) into (5) for
Test II : Test of Quantitative Aptitude
Q.5. If 3 workers can collect 48 kgs cotton in 4 days, how much kgs cotton can 9 workers collect in 2 days ?
(1) 216 (2) 32 (3) 108 (4) 72 (5) None of these
Q.6. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The xpenditure on transport was Rs.480. He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs.60. What should be the selling price of each ream if he wants a profit of 20% ?
(1) Rs.126 (2) Rs.115.50 (3) Rs.105 (4) Rs.120 (5) None of these
Q.7. The interest on a certain deposit at 9% per annum is Rs.405 in one year. How much will be the additional interest in one year on the same deposit at 10% per annum ?
(1) Rs.40.50 (2) Rs.450 (3) Rs.855 (4) Rs.45
(5) None of these
Q.8. The breadth of a rectangular hall is three-fifth of its length. If the area of the hall is 135 sq.m. what is the difference between the length and breadth of the hall in metres ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 15 (5) None of these
Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.
Q.9-11. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that follow :
Percentage of Employees giving Different Ranks
Attribute I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Socialibility 5 14 23 35 10 13
Q.9. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank?
(1) Perseverance(2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Notice the percentage for rank I given in the table. You observe that seniority is the attribute with the highest percentage. So your answer is “Seniority”, which is answer No.2.
Q.10. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Look at the intersection of the column giving percentage for rank III and the row giving percentage for intelligence. You find that 10 percent of the 700 employees have given rank III to this attribute. 10% of 700 is 70. So your answer should be 4.
Q.11. Which attribute is considered the least important for Promotion?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence(3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency(5) Sociability
Referring to the percentage for VI rank, you find that intelligence is the attribute which receives the highest percentage. In other words, a majority of people considers it as the least important and gives it the last rank. Therefore your answer is 2.
Test III : Test of Reasoning
Q.12. If (1) ‘A * B’ means “A is the mother of B” and (II) ‘A x B’ means “A is the husband of B”, which of the following shows ‘P is the father of Q’ ?
(1) Q * M x P (2) P * Q (3) Q * P (4) P x M * Q
(5)None of these
Q.13. Ashok is standing at P. He walks 10 metres towards the South; then he walks 20 metres towards the West; then he walks 10 metres towards the South; then he walks 20 metres towards the East; then he walks 5 metres towards the North and reaches Q. What is the straight distance between P and Q in metres ?
(1) Zero (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 15 (5) None of these
IMPORTANT POINTS TO REMEMBER
1. You are advised to bring with you the following things:
(i) Call-letter with your identification document.
(ii) Completely filled in bio-data information on the sample answersheet provided at the end of this booklet.
(iii) Two HB pencils, a pencil sharpener and a good quality eraser.
(iv) One ballpoint pen.
2. While filling in the bio-data information on the Specimen Answersheet, please fill in YOUR bio-data information. The completed bio-data information on the sample answersheet will help you to fill the same information on the answersheet that will be given to you in the examination hall.
3. Kindly note that there will be penalty for wrong answers
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